Infield Fly ??

[Guest NJ Coach]

I know the rule doesn't apply with only a runner on first base.   But given the purpose of the rule, which is to prevent the defense from intentionally muffing an easy play to get a double-play, can someone explain why the defense wouldn't have this same opportunity with just a runner on first ?

It seems to me the advantage of dropping an easy fly happens as long as there's a force play at any base, including just second base.

[Tborze]

The BR would make it to 1st 99% of the time. 

[ElkOil]

The key is to remember that IFF only applies to fly balls, not line drives or bunts because provided the batter runs to first base, the greatest benefit the defense could achieve by intentionally letting the fly ball drop untouched is to force out the runner at second rather than the batter, resulting in a runner on first base either way. However, if the batter is significantly slower than the runner, the defense may elect to let the ball drop untouched and achieve the force play, replacing the runner at first base with the batter.

Risks for the defense are that the uncaught ball may roll away from the fielder, and any runner on third base can try to score but has the option of remaining on his base.

If the batter gives up on the play, the defense can achieve outs at second base and first base by deliberately letting the ball drop untouched.

[beerguy55]

12 minutes ago, Guest NJ Coach said:

I know the rule doesn't apply with only a runner on first base.   But given the purpose of the rule, which is to prevent the defense from intentionally muffing an easy play to get a double-play, can someone explain why the defense wouldn't have this same opportunity with just a runner on first ?

It seems to me the advantage of dropping an easy fly happens as long as there's a force play at any base, including just second base.

If on a fly ball in the infield the batter has not reached first base by the time it is fielded, that is on him.

With runners on first and second the defense can get the double play regardless of the batter's actions, because both R1 and R2 are tagging up - making for a very easy DP.

If with only R1 the batter hits a fly ball to F6, and in disgust he slams his bat and starts walking back to the dugout - a very savvy F6 could let the ball drop (untouched) and get the DP - and that's the batter's fault.   The rules don't protect stupidity and laziness.  They're protecting a situation where the runners have no real choice in the matter and are at a real disadvantage.

If F6 touches it and the ump rules he dropped it on purpose there is "some" protection, in that that batter will be ruled out.   Same thing on a line drive play - if ump believes the fielder dropped it on purpose he can call the batter out and eliminate the DP...but only if the fielder touches it.

 

This is different from the D3K rule, because the defense can get a cheap double play with just R1, as the batter doesn't have the luxury of a ball hit high in the air to give him time to get to first.

[Guest NJ Coach]

So R1 and R2 are the players who could most realistically get doubled up if an infield fly is dropped ?  OK, got it. Makes sense.

[Senor Azul]

Actually, there are rules in all three codes protecting runners in force situations. An infielder cannot intentionally drop a fly ball. If he does the batter is out and the runner(s) return to their TOP base. For example, the OBR rule is 5.09(a)(12):

(12) An infielder intentionally drops a fair fly ball or line drive, with first, first and second, first and third, or first, second and third base occupied before two are out. The ball is dead and runner or runners shall return to their original base or bases;

APPROVED RULING: In this situation, the batter is not out if the infielder permits the ball to drop untouched to the ground, except when the Infield Fly rule applies.