Appeal Play

[Plate Duster]

Runner on 2nd, 2 outs. Batter hits double. Runner going 2nd to home touches third and home,  BR misses first, but touches second, and is safe standing up. Appeal to first, out. Easy. 

Does the appeal count as a force play, and the run does not score, or is it timing? 

 

If it is force, and no run, how is it any different than a similar situation where if you have a BR miss first on say an infield single,  and the ball is thrown to the base, but is after he crosses the bag. You aren't going to call the runner out just because he missed the bag, it must be appealed. The touch is assumed.

I may be off base, but my argument is for a timing play in my original situation. I would like a ruling for FED, NCAA, and OBR of there are any differences.  Thanks group.

[ALStripes17]

Runner on 2nd, 2 outs. Batter hits double. Runner going 2nd to home touches third and home,  BR misses first, but touches second, and is safe standing up. Appeal to first, out. Easy. 

Does the appeal count as a force play, and the run does not score, or is it timing? 

 

If it is force, and no run, how is it any different than a similar situation where if you have a BR miss first on say an infield single,  and the ball is thrown to the base, but is after he crosses the bag. You aren't going to call the runner out just because he missed the bag, it must be appealed. The touch is assumed.

I may be off base, but my argument is for a timing play in my original situation. I would like a ruling for FED, NCAA, and OBR of there are any differences.  Thanks group.

A play on the BR going to first base is based on the principle of whether or not the BR beats the throw. If a BR completely passes first base, then he is considered to have acquired first base for the purpose of beating the throw. Like any other missed base, the runner is considered to have acquired it by rule, until his infraction is legally appealed.

No run can score if the 3rd out is on the BR prior to legally acquiring first base. Scoring rules 101 for all three codes.

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[Rich Ives]

Here is the actual rule for OBR. It covers your question. The other sets follow the same principle:

 

Rule 5.08 Comment (Rule 4.09 Comment):
APPROVED RULING: No run shall score during a play
in which the third out is made by the batter-runner before
he touches first base. Example: One out, Jones on second,
Smith on first. The batter, Brown, hits safely. Jones
scores. Smith is out on the throw to the plate. Two outs.
But Brown missed first base. The ball is thrown to first,
an appeal is made, and Brown is out. Three outs. Since
Jones crossed the plate during a play in which the third
out was made by the batter-runner before he touched first
base, Jones’ run does not count.

[maven]

No run, all codes. The BR made the third out before touching 1B.

[noumpere]

Several examples of this for FED in the case book under 9.1.1

[Richvee]

10 hours ago, Plate Duster said:

 

If it is force, and no run, how is it any different than a similar situation where if you have a BR miss first on say an infield single,  and the ball is thrown to the base, but is after he crosses the bag. You aren't going to call the runner out just because he missed the bag, it must be appealed. The touch is assumed.

 

It isn't different. In a situation where, let's say we have R3, 2 outs, BR beats out an infield hit,but misses first, the call is safe. However, if the defense appeals before BR returns and touches first, he would be out and the run would not score.