Yet Another Balk Question

[tankmjg24]

So let me apologize in advance for asking this question as I know it has been discussed before, however I am at a loss in finding the thread.  I figure I might as well start up a good debate.  The play in question has R2 and the pitcher turns as if he is going to throw to second but then continues with the pitch to the plate.  In saying this his pivot foot does not move, but his free foot and leg move towards 2nd.  I have asked 2 high level umpires (one a D1 umpire and the other a professional umpire) and received different answers from each.  D1 says that once the pitchers free foot clears the plane that he has to continue to second and if not it is a balk.  Pro says that the pivot foot has to move in order to call it a balk, and that the pitcher simply turning towards second is nothing.  What does everyone think?  Thanks in advance.  

[basejester]

  D1 says that once the pitchers free foot clears the plane that he has to continue to second and if not it is a balk.

That's certainly not the case in Official Baseball Rules (OBR):

8.05 If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when—
(a) The pitcher, while touching his plate, makes any motion naturally associated with
his pitch and fails to make such delivery;
Rule 8.05(a) Comment: If a lefthanded or righthanded pitcher swings his free foot past the
back edge of the pitcher’s rubber, he is required to pitch to the batter except to throw to second base on
a pick-off play.

 

I suspect (but don't know) that in this case NCAA and MLB/OBR are the same, but in general be aware that those rulesets differ on some points.

[catsbackr]

It's hard for me to believe a D1 umpire would rule like this.  I'd think he would only balk this once.

[maineump]

If the pivot foot doesn't move (ie. spin towards second), then I don't have a balk. It is about deception, and I have never seen anyone throw to second (successfully) without moving the pivot foot. He has to either go to second or feint to second once that pivot foot turns.

 

[noumpere]

It's hard for me to believe a D1 umpire would rule like this.  I'd think he would only balk this once.

My guess is that he mis-understood the question.

 

And, I think there's too big an emphasis on "the pivot foot moving" in some of the other answers.  The pivot foot can turn as part of the move toward second or toward home (or toward second-then-home).  There was never any indication in the OP that F1 stepped off with the pivot foot, or lifted it and replanted it or anything else.

[maven]

Not a balk. Perhaps your consultants misunderstood the question (or I did). basejester quoted the rule: foot breaking the plane requires F1 to go to 2B or home.

The rules do not include restrictions on how he turns his body (though moving it toward a base is regulated).