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does the run score


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Question

Posted

man on 1st and 3rd 1 out...line drive to center fielder who makes the catch runner on 3rd properly tags and scores. he touches home and then the runner on 1st is doubled off. does run score?

16 answers to this question

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Posted

No. The run does not score because this is a time play rather than a force play. The runner at 1st is not forced. See the definition of a force play under OBR 2.00

Read the OP again. You are correct that it is a time play. The run does score.

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Posted (edited)

Yes. The run does score because this is a time play rather than a force play. The runner at 1st is not forced. See the definition of a force play under OBR 2.00

Edited by BRUMP
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Posted

Read the OP again. You are correct that it is a time play. The run does score.

I noticed my mistake and edited it. Brain said one thing hands typed another lol.

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Guest Guest
Posted

He is not saying the runner was tagged out at second.  He seems to be saying that the runner on first didn't tag up and his doubled up at first base, which does not require a tag. Is that still a time play?

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Posted

He is not saying the runner was tagged out at second.  He seems to be saying that the runner on first didn't tag up and his doubled up at first base, which does not require a tag. Is that still a time play?

Yes it's a time play. Being "doubled off" is not a force. It is an appeal play of the runner not tagging up on a caught fly ball.

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Posted

isn't that what the OP says happened?

He is not saying the runner was tagged out at second.  He seems to be saying that the runner on first didn't tag up and his doubled up at first base, which does not require a tag. Is that still a time play?

I was going off of memory of what was posted at that point and was off on what base it was (1st and 3rd, I had 2nd and 3rd in my head for some reason) and was using a general answer.

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Posted

Guys I maybe misunderstanding this but was the 3rd out recorded prior to the BR reaching 1st? Sent from my SM-N910T using Tapatalk

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Posted

Guys I maybe misunderstanding this but was the 3rd out recorded prior to the BR reaching 1st? Sent from my SM-N910T using Tapatalk

Yes, but it was not made by the BR before he reached 1B.

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Posted

Guys I maybe misunderstanding this but was the 3rd out recorded prior to the BR reaching 1st? Sent from my SM-N910T using Tapatalk

No, the 3rd out was recored after the 2nd out, which was the BR's fly ball being caught.

Mike

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Posted (edited)

Yes the run would count. From the OP, the 2nd out was a line drive caught by the CF (so the BR would never reach 1B because he's out on the catch!)   If the runner on 3rd properly tags up and then scores before the runner on 1st gets doubled up, the run counts as it wasn't a force play.  This is the time part of the time play.

Edited by Umpirechick1
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Posted

Earlier in the season, involving the Dodgers, there was a play that shows an excellent example of this time play. I can't find the highlight; but essentially the tagging runner Does Not touch home Before the third out is recorded on the runner attempting to tag up on first.  It was a great play.

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Posted

That's a good example, but not the one I was thinking of. The play happened this season. With one out, fly ball for the second out. R3 tags (I thought it was Van Slyke), but jogs down to HP. R1, who took off on contact is out at 1B before re-touching for the 3rd out. Umpires rule run did not touch HP before 3rd out at first.

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