Interference - NFHS Code

[UmpJeff]

With R3 on 3rd base with one out, R3 accidentally interferes with F5 who is attempting to catch a foul fly ball. The
count was 1-1 at the time of the pitch. Rule given the following:

A. The batter is out, R3 stays at 3rd base.

B. R3 is out, B3 remains at bat with a count of 1-2.

C. R3 is out, B3 remains at bat with a count of 1-1.

D. Both R3 and B3 are out.

 

I selected "C" which, I was told, was incorrect.  My rationale for my ruling was that as soon as R3 interfered with F5, the ball became dead immediately (5-1-1e).  Because the ball is immediately dead upon R3's interference of F5, the batted ball, which is still in flight, is neither caught, and has neither touched fair or foul territory.  Accordingly, I ruled the action of the batter, and the pitch, was to be nullified thereby resulting in R3 being called out for interference and the batter returns with a 1-1 count.

 

I suspect that the correct answer is "D".  Please confirm my suspicions and cite rules, where applicable.  Thanks,

 

Jeff

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

[maven]

8.4.2 SITUATION B:

With R1 on third and R2 on first and a count of one-and-one, B3 hits a foul fly ball near the third-base line with one out. R1 interferes with F5 in his attempt to catch the ball.

RULING: The ball is dead immediately. R1 is declared out because of his interference with F5. B3 remains at bat with a count of one-and-two.

 

The reference is 8-4-2g.

 

You're right that the ball is dead immediately, but it is also a foul ball. Every batted ball is either fair or foul. And we're not giving the batter a pass because his teammate is an idiot.

[UmpJeff]

Thanks, Maven!

[JaxRolo]

Did F5 catch the ball?

[maven]

Did F5 catch the ball?

 

According to the play, the INT occurred during F5's attempt to catch the ball. Would it matter if he completed the catch?

[JaxRolo]

 

Did F5 catch the ball?

 

According to the play, the INT occurred during F5's attempt to catch the ball. Would it matter if he completed the catch?

 

Probably not since the ball is dead immediately.

[JaxRolo]

Say this happens: Same play but in fair territory. F5 catches the ball after the interference.

 

Ruling: R3 is out Batter gets first.

[maven]

Say this happens: Same play but in fair territory. F5 catches the ball after the interference.

 

Ruling: R3 is out Batter gets first.

 

Are you sure? No chance for 2 outs there?

[JaxRolo]

 

Say this happens: Same play but in fair territory. F5 catches the ball after the interference.

 

Ruling: R3 is out Batter gets first.

 

Are you sure? No chance for 2 outs there?

 

We went over this at a Perfect Game clinic.

 

INT so ball is dead. No Out possible on batter. But you still have to rule on fair/foul. If its fair batter gets first.

 

This is OBR but I believe it is the same in all codes.

 

I could be wrong. (I was wrong once last year)

[UmpJeff]

^{I would not give B3 first.  I'm not going to benefit the offense on an interference call.} 

[maven]

We went over this at a Perfect Game clinic.

 

INT so ball is dead. No Out possible on batter. But you still have to rule on fair/foul. If its fair batter gets first.

 

This is OBR but I believe it is the same in all codes.

 

I could be wrong. (I was wrong once last year)

FED wants 2 here. The standard is lower: if the INT prevents a possible DP, you should get 2. This play is not identical to yours, Jax, but it's pretty close.

8.4.2 SITUATION E:

With all bases occupied and no outs, B4 bunts, which results in a fly ball in the infield (not an infield fly). As R1 advances toward home, he contacts F5, causing him to drop the fly ball. How should the umpire rule?

RULING: The ball is dead immediately. R1 is out for interference and B4 is out, since the interference prevented a double play involving R1 and B4.

[JaxRolo]

^{I would not give B3 first.  I'm not going to benefit the offense on an interference call.} 

Don't make up your own rules. It's a fair ball. And you are already getting an out.

[JaxRolo]

 

We went over this at a Perfect Game clinic.

 

INT so ball is dead. No Out possible on batter. But you still have to rule on fair/foul. If its fair batter gets first.

 

This is OBR but I believe it is the same in all codes.

 

I could be wrong. (I was wrong once last year)

FED wants 2 here. The standard is lower: if the INT prevents a possible DP, you should get 2. This play is not identical to yours, Jax, but it's pretty close.

8.4.2 SITUATION E:

With all bases occupied and no outs, B4 bunts, which results in a fly ball in the infield (not an infield fly). As R1 advances toward home, he contacts F5, causing him to drop the fly ball. How should the umpire rule?

RULING: The ball is dead immediately. R1 is out for interference and B4 is out, since the interference prevented a double play involving R1 and B4.

 

I agree. But in my situation a DP is not being prevented. One or the other is going to be out during the play. so there was no DP possible during the play.

 

Had there been no INT then batter would have been out.

[maven]

I agree. But in my situation a DP is not being prevented. One or the other is going to be out during the play. so there was no DP possible during the play.

 

Had there been no INT then batter would have been out.

Jax, in your situation the batter pops up and is going to be out on the caught fly ball. When R3 interferes, he's well off the base, and is going to be doubled up unless he interferes.

 

How is the INT not preventing a DP?

[JaxRolo]

 

I agree. But in my situation a DP is not being prevented. One or the other is going to be out during the play. so there was no DP possible during the play.

 

Had there been no INT then batter would have been out.

Jax, in your situation the batter pops up and is going to be out on the caught fly ball. When R3 interferes, he's well off the base, and is going to be doubled up unless he interferes.

 

How is the INT not preventing a DP?

 

I can see your point.

 

Doesn't necessarily have to be well of the base. Fly ball could be right on the line near the base and R3 could have bumped him well before the ball got to F5 and still had time to return.

[UmpJeff]

 

^{I would not give B3 first.  I'm not going to benefit the offense on an interference call.} 

Don't make up your own rules. It's a fair ball. And you are already getting an out.

Why would you award the batter 1st base on this play if the ball were fair? 

[noumpere]

 

Say this happens: Same play but in fair territory. F5 catches the ball after the interference.

 

Ruling: R3 is out Batter gets first.

 

Are you sure? No chance for 2 outs there?

 

Theres a chance for two outs but only if a DP was possible / likely (I forget the exact HS words here).

 

So if R3 went when the ball was hit and the interference happened up the line toward the plate then you could say that the likely result with no interference is F5 catches the ball (BR out) and then doubles off R3.

 

None of that was in the test question though.

 

And am I imagining things or is this about the 5th thread on this subject recently -- it seems to be the "play of the year" and I don't quite get why theres so much confusion over it still.

[JaxRolo]

 

 

^{I would not give B3 first.  I'm not going to benefit the offense on an interference call.} 

Don't make up your own rules. It's a fair ball. And you are already getting an out.

Why would you award the batter 1st base on this play if the ball were fair? 

 

Because that is the rule. If its fould it is just a fould ball. Even if caught. See @mavens Post #2.  If caught foul= Its just Strike 2. So it stands to reason that if caught fair. Batter gets first.

What's the count if you don't give him first?

[ALStripes17]

^{I would not give B3 first. I'm not going to benefit the offense on an interference call.}

Don't make up your own rules. It's a fair ball. And you are already getting an out.

Why would you award the batter 1st base on this play if the ball were fair?

You're not benefitting the offense at all here. You would be adding an out (R3) and moving the offensive situation back 2 bases.

Adding an out and "moving" a runner from 3rd back to 1st doesn't really appeal to me as an OTHC.

[maven]

Theres a chance for two outs but only if a DP was possible / likely (I forget the exact HS words here).

FED: the standard is a possible double play: "if in the judgment of the umpire the interference prevented a possible double play, B2 also would be called out." 2.21.1 SIT A

OBR: the standard is willful and deliberate interference: a runner and the BR are both out when "a base runner willfully and deliberately interferes with a batted ball or a fielder in the act of fielding a batted ball with the obvious intent to break up a double play." 7.09(f)

[JaxRolo]

 

Theres a chance for two outs but only if a DP was possible / likely (I forget the exact HS words here).

FED: the standard is a possible double play: "if in the judgment of the umpire the interference prevented a possible double play, B2 also would be called out." 2.21.1 SIT A

OBR: the standard is willful and deliberate interference: a runner and the BR are both out when "a base runner willfully and deliberately interferes with a batted ball or a fielder in the act of fielding a batted ball with the obvious intent to break up a double play." 7.09(f)

 

I agree with this. Just don't see a possible DP unless R3 is way off the bag. Then use your Judgement.

[maven]

I agree with this. Just don't see a possible DP unless R3 is way off the bag. Then use your Judgement.

He need only be as far off as F5, who can turn and tag him after the catch.

 

And if R3 is contacting F5, presumably he's as far away from the base as F5.

[noumpere]

 

I agree with this. Just don't see a possible DP unless R3 is way off the bag. Then use your Judgement.

He need only be as far off as F5, who can turn and tag him after the catch.

 

And if R3 is contacting F5, presumably he's as far away from the base as F5.

 

That's true if the contact / interference happens just as the ball reaches the glove of F5.  But if the ball is still up in the air, then R3 has much more time to get back to the base.

[BT_Blue]

In Maven's example I too am going to get two.

[mrumpiresir]

 

 

^{I would not give B3 first.  I'm not going to benefit the offense on an interference call.} 

Don't make up your own rules. It's a fair ball. And you are already getting an out.

Why would you award the batter 1st base on this play if the ball were fair? 

 

Uh, because that's what the rule book says.