Pitching Motion Rules

[Pops]

From time to time I hear about balks and balls being called for pitchers stopping their windups while on the rubber or starting a pitching motion while off the rubber. But I have never been able to find the rules which support such calls.

The obvious balk call occurs with a runner at third when F1 stops his windup. But if the bases are empty, this is a no call, correct?

And if F1 is off the rubber with runners on base and makes a pitching motion, this is a balk in HS (rule 6-2-5), but I can't find anything for OBR with or without runners.

Can someone steer me to the Fed/OBR rules which discuss these situations?

[mazzamouth]

From time to time I hear about balks and balls being called for pitchers stopping their windups while on the rubber or starting a pitching motion while off the rubber. But I have never been able to find the rules which support such calls.

The obvious balk call occurs with a runner at third when F1 stops his windup. But if the bases are empty, this is a no call, correct?

And if F1 is off the rubber with runners on base and makes a pitching motion, this is a balk in HS (rule 6-2-5), but I can't find anything for OBR with or without runners.

Can someone steer me to the Fed/OBR rules which discuss these situations?

the pitching rule in OBR is rule 8... it's all in there..

[kcfan102]

OBR:

You can't balk with nobody on base. If a pitcher stops his windup and completly starts over, as in, no obvious quick pitch, you got nothing. Just like, while in the stretch with nobody on, he doesn't have to come to a complete stop. Just keep in mind that when pitchers do these things, they aren't trying to catch the batter off guard and quick pitch.

As for motions off of the rubber:

8.05

(g) The pitcher makes any motion naturally associated with his pitch while he is not touching the pitcher’s plate;

[Pops]

OBR:

If a pitcher stops his windup and completly starts over, as in, no obvious quick pitch, you got nothing.

Is this true for Fed as well with no runners on base? Or is a ball awarded to the batter for some reason?

[Umpire in Chief]

I'd still have nothing.

[UmpJM]

Is this true for Fed as well with no runners on base? Or is a ball awarded to the batter for some reason?

rog,

Under FED rules, if the pitcher aborts his delivery with no runners on AND the offense did not cause him to (e.g. the batter tepping out and/or requesting time), a ball is properly awarded to the batter.

6-1-1/2/3 Penalty.

JM

[mstaylor]

John is right on the Fed stop with no runners. As to OBR, read all of rule eight but pay close attention to 8.01a and b and 8.05. 8.01 covers the two basic pitching motions, 8.05 vcovers the balk violations.

Then come back and ask away. There shoould be plenty of questions after some reading.

[Pops]

rog,

Under FED rules, if the pitcher aborts his delivery with no runners on AND the offense did not cause him to (e.g. the batter tepping out and/or requesting time), a ball is properly awarded to the batter.

6-1-1/2/3 Penalty.

JM

The PENALTY section for Fed 6-1-2 says, "The ball is dead immediately when an illegal pitch occurs. If there is no runner, a ball is awarded the batter."

Rule 6-1-2 states "After he starts his movement to pitch, he must continue the motion without interruption or alteration." Nowhere does it say that this is defined as an illegal pitch. I always assumed that this rule referred to a situation where there were runners on base (and therefore a balk would be called). Why award a ball to the batter with no runners on base?

[Pops]

John is right on the Fed stop with no runners. As to OBR, read all of rule eight but pay close attention to 8.01a and b and 8.05. 8.01 covers the two basic pitching motions, 8.05 vcovers the balk violations.

Then come back and ask away. There shoould be plenty of questions after some reading.

OBR 8.01a and b do not address my question. With no runner on base, the pitcher can stop his windup and it's a "no pitch." It's the Fed rule that I question. Where is the documentation that supports an award of a ball to the batter with no runner on base?

[softballcoach]

another scenario, pitcher from the stretch, ball in throwing hand, glove hand in front of his face, ball is not inside his glove but is next to his ear. He's set, and not moving at all until he starts his wind up and pitches. Would this be considered a legal pitch? He's coming set, he's just not holding the ball inside his glove when he does.

[MCLEOD36]

Softball Coach....

Ball next to his ear....NOOOOOO..... in glove hand at side, behind back or gorilla, but no dangling gorrilla..... That does seem very magical though, glove in front of face and ball near his ear. I wonder if he can chew gum and rub his belly at the same time?

[mstaylor]

OBR 8.01a and b do not address my question. With no runner on base, the pitcher can stop his windup and it's a "no pitch." It's the Fed rule that I question. Where is the documentation that supports an award of a ball to the batter with no runner on base?

Sorry, the OP wasn't book specific so I gave OBR. I will get you the FED rule when I come back from my game.

[softballcoach]

Softball Coach....

Ball next to his ear....NOOOOOO..... in glove hand at side, behind back or gorilla, but no dangling gorrilla..... That does seem very magical though, glove in front of face and ball near his ear. I wonder if he can chew gum and rub his belly at the same time?

He's very talented for a 10U!!! Our association voted a few years ago to move from LL to USSSA. I like USSSA better in the older divisions because the field gets bigger. The challenging part for me is with a 10U team trying to coach them proper pitching mechanics AND having them worrying about loose runners stealing on them. Hindsight I wish we'd have left 10U with tight bases and get the kids pitching doing it with the correct mechanics. Luckily we're not enforcing balks, they're called and showed what they are doing wrong.