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Posted

Prado at first with 2 outs. Chipper hits a ball deep in the gap. Fan reaches over and interferes. Chipper gets 2B. Prado was running on contact with 2 outs and was between 2nd and 3rd when interference occurred. OK, 2 bases, but why did the umpires not give Prado home since he would have made it easily? Is it automatic 2 bases or could the umpires award home since he would have had it anyway? Just happened a couple of minutes ago so no video yet.

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Posted

Prado at first with 2 outs. Chipper hits a ball deep in the gap. Fan reaches over and interferes. Chipper gets 2B. Prado was running on contact with 2 outs and was between 2nd and 3rd when interference occurred. OK, 2 bases, but why did the umpires not give Prado home since he would have made it easily? Is it automatic 2 bases or could the umpires award home since he would have had it anyway? Just happened a couple of minutes ago so no video yet.

It's a God rule. They can award whatever they want.

OTOH, there's no way in hell we can answer why they ruled as they did.

Posted

I was getting at whether or not they choose what to award and for a reason as to why they might have awarded what they did...

Posted

I was getting at whether or not they choose what to award and for a reason as to why they might have awarded what they did...

Yes they choose but do you think one of us was in the huddle?

Posted

Just looking for insight.

Posted

Just looking for insight.

Honestly, there is none. The umpires place the runners where the umpires feel they would have been had the interference not occurred. There's no hard rule on it.


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