Hey Guys, First, thank you. I have learned a ton and this site and it's made my dealings and conversations with umpires much more efficient and cordial. I have a bet going with a friend of mine and I need some help on rule reference and if possible, multiple responses. This is OBR rule set and here's the scenarios. 1. R1 and pitcher in the set. Pitcher comes set and R1 takes off for second before the pitch is delivered. Pitcher wheels and throws to second. Is this a balk? 2. R2 and pitcher is in the set. Pitcher comes set and R2 takes off from second before the pitch is delivered. The pitcher, without disengaging steps directly to 3rd with his free foot and throws to F5 to retire the base runner. Is this a balk? Here's what I have so far: (4) The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play; Rule 6.02 (a)(4) Comment (Rule 8.05(d ) Comment ): When determining whether the pitcher throws or feints a throw to an unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play, the umpire should consider whether a runner on the previous base demonstrates or otherwise creates an impression of his intent to advance to such unoccupied base. Anything else you can add as far as interpretations (I don't have those, only the rule book) would be greatly appreciated.