Velho Posted June 19 Report Posted June 19 Other thread about interference with a secondary fielder after a deflected ball gave me a slight doubt so want to confirm the below. Situation: R2, no outs; ground ball to F6, no intentional act to contact the ball by the runner, no OBS or INT with the fielders: A) batted ball hits R2 in front of F6: INT B) batted ball goes through or by F6 untouched, ball hits R2, no fielders behind R2*: Live ball. No INT C) batted ball goes through or by F5 untouched, ball hits R2 in front of F6, F6 had a play: INT D) batted ball deflects off F6, ball hits R2, no fielders behind R2*: Live ball. No INT E) batted ball deflects off F5, ball hits R2, F6 is inline and had a play on deflected ball: Live ball. No INT * LF is inline and charging but 50+ ft away. Yes, that as a real argument from a coach fishing. 1 Quote
RBIbaseball Posted June 25 Report Posted June 25 On 6/19/2024 at 4:47 PM, Velho said: C) batted ball goes through or by F5 untouched, ball hits R2 in front of F6, F6 had a play: INT I'm glad you posted this cause I had this one wrong. Had to go back and read it. Was thinking once it goes by/through an infielder it has to be intentional... but exception if another fielder could make the play. Quote
Velho Posted June 25 Author Report Posted June 25 40 minutes ago, RBIbaseball said: Was thinking once it goes by/through an infielder it has to be intentional... but exception if another fielder could make the play. 👍 By/through but not deflected. Contact with a deflected ball has to be intentional by the runner for INT. Quote
Jimurray Posted June 25 Report Posted June 25 2 hours ago, RBIbaseball said: I'm glad you posted this cause I had this one wrong. Had to go back and read it. Was thinking once it goes by/through an infielder it has to be intentional... but exception if another fielder could make the play. "B) batted ball goes through or by F6 untouched, ball hits R2, no fielders behind R2*: Live ball. No INT": is correct but if we change F6 to F3 in MLB they would believe F4 would have a play. He doesn't need to be "behind" R2. 1 Quote
Velho Posted June 25 Author Report Posted June 25 5 minutes ago, Jimurray said: "B) batted ball goes through or by F6 untouched, ball hits R2, no fielders behind R2*: Live ball. No INT": is correct but if we change F6 to F3 in MLB they would believe F4 would have a play. He doesn't need to be "behind" R2. Good context @Jimurray. I kept it simple in an attempt to reduce the ambiguity and you are correct. Thanks. Quote
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