Does Run Score?

[Sut'n Blue]

Curious after the runner being passed in the Dodgers game that Gil highlighted.

If there had been two outs, does the base runner still score?

[Senor Azul]

(2019 OBR rule) 5.08 How a Team Scores

(a) One run shall be scored each time a runner legally advances to and touches first, second, third and home base before three men are put out to end the inning.

From the 2018 MiLBUM (section 5.47, p. 61):

Play 1:  Bases loaded, two out. Batter hits a homerun out of the ballpark but passes the runner on first before the runner on third reaches the plate. All runners continue around the bases and touch home.

Ruling 1:  No runs score. This is a time play. (Note clarification to OBR Rule 7.01(g)(3) Approved Ruling.)

2019 OBR rule 7.01(g) The score of a regulation game is the total number of runs scored by each team at the moment the game ends.

APPROVED RULING: The batter hits a home run out of the playing field to win the game in the last half of the ninth or an extra inning, but is called out for passing a preceding runner. The game ends immediately when the winning run is scored, unless there are two out and the winning run has not yet reached home plate when the runner passes another, in which case the inning is over and only those runs that scored before the runner passes another shall count.

[SH0102]

What Azul is saying is no...a passing is a time play, so only runs that scored prior to the time of the passing would count.

Let’s pretend bases were loaded with two outs.  If R3 crosses HP before Bellinger passed Turner, his run would count 

[beerguy55]

On 4/2/2021 at 3:26 PM, Sut'n Blue said:

Curious after the runner being passed in the Dodgers game that Gil highlighted.

If there had been two outs, does the base runner still score?

In the Bellinger scenario, no.  Bellinger is out immediately upon passing Turner, so the inning would end with Turner between first and second.

[bwburke94]

Had this been NFHS I believe the run would score?

[Senor Azul]

Mr. bwburke94, that used to be the way FED ruled on this scenario. They even had a case play stating exactly that—I think it was 9.1.1M which has been deleted from the NFHS case book. I refer you to the following thread and a current case play 3.3.1 Situation FF which tells us now that it it is a time play just like the professionals—

 

2019 NFHS Case Book Play 3.3.1FF

With two outs and the bases loaded, B6 hits a home run out of the park. R1 maliciously runs over (a) F4 before touching second base or (b) F5 before touching third. RULING: In both (a) and (b), R1 is declared out and ejected. In (a), the third out is a force, so no runs score. In (b), the third out was not a force play, so runners who have touched the plate prior to the infraction would score. Please note that in awarded situations it is not the base that is awarded, but rather the right to advance and legally touch a base with no play being made.

 

[beerguy55]

On 4/4/2021 at 3:34 AM, bwburke94 said:

Had this been NFHS I believe the run would score?

I don't see how in the two-out hypothetical...Bellinger is out immediately...he makes the third out.  Turner is nowhere near home.  Why would the run score?  Did FED at one time let baserunners complete their dead-ball award after the third out?

I suppose then it would matter if Bellinger passed Turner before or after the ball went over the fence...

[Senor Azul]

Obviously, Mr. beerguy55, you did not follow the link to Passing a preceding runner I provided earlier in this thread. If you had all your questions would have been answered. In addition, there is a link in that thread to an earlier thread in the Rules forum called End of game situation which further explains the history of the FED rule in question. Funny thing, though, is that you actually participated in both threads.

[beerguy55]

14 hours ago, Senor Azul said:

Obviously, Mr. beerguy55, you did not follow the link to Passing a preceding runner I provided earlier in this thread. If you had all your questions would have been answered. In addition, there is a link in that thread to an earlier thread in the Rules forum called End of game situation which further explains the history of the FED rule in question. Funny thing, though, is that you actually participated in both threads.

My memory is great, just not long.