Jump to content
Umpire-Empire locks topics which have not been active in the last year. The thread you are viewing hasn't been active in 2974 days so you will not be able to post. We do recommend you starting a new topic to find out what's new in the world of umpiring.

Recommended Posts

Posted

Hello all, I am having difficulties understanding one of the NFHS Part 1 question and answer.  Here is the question with possible answer choices followed by what NFHS states is correct.

With a runner on third, the batter hits a high pop fly that drifts over foul territory.  The third baseman is accidentally prevented from catching the ball by the runner at third base.

  • A. Foul Ball
  • B. The runner at third is out and the batter is out
  • C. The batter is out
  • D. The coach is restricted to the bench and the coaching box must remain unoccupied

Answer: B. The runner at third is out and the batter is out

Explanation: 8-4-2g

8-4-2g states any runner is out when he:  intentionally interferes with a throw or a thrown ball; or he hinders a fielder on his initial attempt to field a batted ball. A fielder is not protected, except from intentional contact if he misplays the ball and has to move from his original location; or his being put out is prevented by an ­illegal act by anyone connected with the team (2-21-1, 3-2-2, 3) or by the batter-runner; for runner returning to base (8-2-6); and for runner being hit by a batted ball (8-4-2k). If, in the judgment of the umpire, a runner ­including the batter-runner interferes in any way and prevents a double play anywhere, two shall be declared out (the runner who interfered and the other runner involved). If a retired runner interferes, and in the judgment of the umpire, another runner could have been put out, the umpire shall declare that runner out. If the umpire is uncertain who would have been played on, the runner closest to home shall be called out;

So why am I going to get a double play here?  In my mind you call out R3 for interference and put the batter back into the box as the ball was determined to be foul.  I do not think that R3 is preventing a double play which would be the only reasoning for getting 2 outs.  Thoughts?  

Posted

What if R3 was way down the line past half way to home (why he would be there IDK), but then interferes could we get two out because it is likely we would be doubled off?

 

 

Posted
6 minutes ago, White47 said:

What if R3 was way down the line past half way to home (why he would be there IDK), but then interferes could we get two out because it is likely we would be doubled off?

 

 

Yes.  There's some case play similar to this.

Posted
1 hour ago, White47 said:

What if R3 was way down the line past half way to home (why he would be there IDK), but then interferes could we get two out because it is likely we would be doubled off?

Nobody disputes that, in general, a double play is possible when a runner commits INT.

But the test question would need to make the situation more evident ("the runner's INT prevents an obvious double play" or some such) to make that the best answer. Most instances of the play in the test question, without further specification, would not result in a double play.

  • Like 1
×
×
  • Create New...