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Guest Ren

Similar "does the run score?" question

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Guest Ren

Here's a situation I had the other day:

Runner on 3rd, two outs, two strikes on the batter.  Runner from 3rd steals home and his sliding foot crosses the plate before the pitched ball reaches the plate. The pitched ball was a strike so I rung the batter up for the third out. 

Here's my question:  I didn't count the run, but have been wondering to myself whether I should have counted it (should I have treated it as a timing play)?  My mind said no, but we all have calls now and again that we later begin to second guess ourselves on.  Luckily the game ended up being a blowout and the call didn't factor into the decision.

So what's the official ruling on that?  In the book?

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5.08 (4.09) How a Team Scores
(a) One run shall be scored each time a runner legally advances to
and touches first, second, third and home base before three men
are put out to end the inning.
EXCEPTION: A run is not scored if the runner
advances to home base during a play in which the third
out is made (1) by the batter-runner before he touches
first base
; (2) by any runner being forced out; or (3) by
a preceding runner who is declared out because he
failed to touch one of the bases.

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The rule has been cited. The other thing you need to know is that the "play" (as in, "during a play" in the rule) begins when F1 starts his motion to pitch: the fact that R3 scored before the pitch reached the plate is moot.

No run.

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