Umpire interference + runner interference on batted ball

[udbrky]

I dodged a line drive by inches yesterday and R2 ran into F6 fielding it. PU called INT since I was busy not getting hit.

 

I assume that since ball would be dead as soon as it hits me, it's umpire interference, but what if R2 hits him first?

[Stk004]

The wording at the end is confusing. If R2 hits you, train wreck. If the ball hits you then R2 ball is dead for umpire interference. BR awarded 1st (R2 goes back to 2nd if there's no R1 right?). If the ball hits R2 first ball is dead, he is out, BR awarded 1st. All other runners return to last base legally acquired TOI. If the ball hits F6 then R2 and they collide, you could have a very sticky HTBT scenario, depending how far away the ball was from F6. 

[udbrky]

R2 and I come no where close to each other. I'm in C. F6 comes in normally. R2 runs into him.

I know the ruling on ball hitting me, ball hitting runner, and runner hitting fielder.

The question is, if it hits me and the runner hits the fielder, is it umpire INT or offensive? Fielder is set up to field ball.

[Stk004]

Just now, udbrky said:

R2 and I come no where close to each other. I'm in C. F6 comes in normally. R2 runs into him.

I know the ruling on ball hitting me, ball hitting runner, and runner hitting fielder.

The question is, if it hits me and the runner hits the fielder, is it umpire INT or offensive? Fielder is set up to field ball.

If the ball hits you while you're in front of the fielder, ball is dead. Doesn't matter what happens after that, whether R2 plows into F6 or if they merely high five. 

[udbrky]

This was my assumption.

[Stk004]

20 minutes ago, udbrky said:

This was my assumption.

So did that answer your question?

[udbrky]

Well it confirmed what I thought

 

But yeah, barring any compelling reason it would be on the runner instead.

 

Just made me think later about it, what would happen in that situation.

[JohnnyFever]

If the ball hits you in front of F6 it is still a live ball unless F1 had a legitimate play on the ball,  correct? Play on, no umpire interference. My understanding of the rule is that umpires are just a part of the field until the ball passes a fielder other than F1. 

Please correct me if I'm wrong. 

[Stk004]

7 minutes ago, JohnnyFever said:

If the ball hits you in front of F6 it is still a live ball unless F1 had a legitimate play on the ball,  correct? Play on, no umpire interference. My understanding of the rule is that umpires are just a part of the field until the ball passes a fielder other than F1. 

Please correct me if I'm wrong. 

You have it backwards 

[udbrky]

You are correct in the 2nd part:

Quote

until the ball passes a fielder other than F1. 

 

But F6 was behind me with a play on the ball.

 

Fortunately, I had a great partner who was on top of it and handled a pulled foot play really well too.

[JohnnyFever]

9 minutes ago, Stk004 said:

You have it backwards 

You're absolutely right.  I do have it backwards. Thank you. 

[VolUmp]

No one really answered the man's initial question.

"but what if R2 hits him first?"

He's asking ... "What if R2 hits F6 before the batted ball hit me (the umpire), and F6 was setting up with a play on the ball?"

The answer is ... if the ball hits you, the umpire ... even momentarily AFTER the runner hit the fielder, R2's INT is all a moot point.

Call umpire INT, ball is dead, batter awarded a base hit, R2 returns, and your INT made R2's INT with F6 immaterial to the play.

Note:  If your partner calls INT too quickly, you'll have to get together and fix it.