balk or legal

[Fittske24]

Balk..... Twice First I have F1 breaking his front knee as his first movement. With this, he is now committed to deliver a pitch. He does not.....Balk.Now lets say F1 doesn't break his front knee.... I have a spin move with a subsequent feint to first. A spin move regardless of where his pivot foot lands (On, off, or astride the rubber) is considered to be an "on the rubber" Pickoff move. Any "on the rubber" pick off move requires a throw to first. Since F1 feints his throw....Balk

I don't understand why the front bend is a balk. They have to bend it to make any kind of move. The WUM does have this wording though regarding the back knee:"The pitcher BREAKS HIS BACK KNEE, and throws to a base in an attempt to pick off a runner [8.05(a)]."The all caps is bolded in the WUM. The fact that they emphasize the back knee to me suggests that they allow the front knee to break because the pitcher has to do it to make any kind of move.There is no need to specifically reference the front knee because with R1 only and a RHP, ANY movement (twitch, lifting up the heel, breaking of the knee etc.)with the non-pivot foot(front leg) commits the pitcher to pitch. The back knee is referenced specifically because the back leg is allowed to move without delivering a pitch i.e. Stepping backward disengaging the pitchers plate. However breaking the knee in an attempt to deceive the runner then stepping off is not allowed. Doing so and throwing to 1st base is a balk.

[afaber12]

 

 

Balk..... Twice First I have F1 breaking his front knee as his first movement. With this, he is now committed to deliver a pitch. He does not.....Balk.Now lets say F1 doesn't break his front knee.... I have a spin move with a subsequent feint to first. A spin move regardless of where his pivot foot lands (On, off, or astride the rubber) is considered to be an "on the rubber" Pickoff move. Any "on the rubber" pick off move requires a throw to first. Since F1 feints his throw....Balk

I don't understand why the front bend is a balk. They have to bend it to make any kind of move. The WUM does have this wording though regarding the back knee:"The pitcher BREAKS HIS BACK KNEE, and throws to a base in an attempt to pick off a runner [8.05(a)]."The all caps is bolded in the WUM. The fact that they emphasize the back knee to me suggests that they allow the front knee to break because the pitcher has to do it to make any kind of move. There is no need to specifically reference the front knee because with R1 only and a RHP, ANY movement (twitch, lifting up the heel, breaking of the knee etc.)with the non-pivot foot(front leg) commits the pitcher to pitch. The back knee is referenced specifically because the back leg is allowed to move without delivering a pitch i.e. Stepping backward disengaging the pitchers plate. However breaking the knee in an attempt to deceive the runner then stepping off is not allowed. Doing so and throwing to 1st base is a balk.

 

 

That's just not true. Just as a LHP can step and throw to 1st, so too can a RHP. As long as the step is a single motion and gains distance and direction to the base, both LHP and RHP can pickoff to any base. Now if such a twitch, bend, or other movement occur without being the first part of continuous motion to a pitch, a throw to 1st or 3rd, or a feint to 2nd, then that's a balk.

 

Its virtually impossible to make any move from the mound, whether its to pitch or a legal pickoff/feint without some sort of preparatory action in one or both legs. Depending on how the pitcher comes to a rest, where their weight is balanced, how far apart their feet are, whether their open or closed to the plate, all of these things will affect what their first move has to be to step with their front foot and likewise for their back foot.

 

In this case, I'm not sure it was a jump/spin move because I'm not sure that the front foot left the ground. Assuming that's the case, then as long as the bend of the front leg occurred as a continuous part of the rest of the movement - as in the bend was part of a lean on to that leg to allow the back leg clearance to step back, and that the bend and the step occurred if not completely concurrently then at least overlapped in timing - and that the step cleared the rubber, then I have the pitcher as disengaging, and therefore no balk.

[mstaylor]

The question is simple, is this a jab step or a legal disengagement? It is not a jump step or an in contact step. So simply did he disengage by moving his pivot foot back and then feint to first; or did he jab step and land behind the rubber. If the former, the feint is legal. If the former then it is a balk. The other possibility is an illegal attempt at disengaging. It can be judged that he started his step to first before he landed his right foot. I don't think this applies but it is a possibility.