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Showing results for tags 'batter interference'.
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https://www.facebook.com/reel/904226990863276?fs=e&s=TIeQ9V&mibextid=0NULKw This tactic seems to be gaining popularity. I’ve seen the videos, and saw it happen today. I did not call BI on my play. My batter took a half hearted “ golf swing” that didn’t come close to hindering the catcher. The pitch was a strike anyway so I didn’t have to rule a swing or not. My question. This delayed swing is a blatant attempt to hinder/ distract F2. Can we grab BI for intent alone? I think the delayed swing needs to actually interfere. Not just attempt to. Also, if you rule no BI, ( or the throw retires the runner) and the ball is outside the strike zone, are you grabbing a swinging strike no matter how late the swing? Thoughts??? edit to add- I’m in no way interested in criticizing/ critiquing this PU’s lack of mechanics.
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Poor quality JV double header on Saturday .... Game 2, I have the dish (btw.... first game was 22-3 VT). Innings and outs don't matter .... VT up to bat, R2 and R3 .... Pitch comes in and gets away from F2, he scrambles and grabs it and looks to R3 who was tempted to score but retreats ... F2 throws the ball that procedes to hit the batters bat sitting on his shoulder square in the box, ... he NEVER moved ....I instantly hear "INTERFERENCE" ...just as I "safe" and say "that's nothing"... "he's got to move" "no he doesn't" "yes he does" "Greg, ...he's in the box, and didn't interfere, he doesn't have to move, that's nothing" and that was it..... but you heard the team and the coaches discussing it a couple batters later ..... "it doesn't matter, he's got to get out of the way" Also,... HT was down 12 -2 in game 2 at this point.... Oh well ...
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During today's HS varsity game, right-handed B1 squares to bunt. As F1 delivers, R1 breaks for second. B1 takes the pitch for a strike over the inner half and moves his right foot toward the catcher, closing the distance between the two players. F2 has to do a little shuffle to avoid B1 while throwing to 2B. R1 is safe at 2B. Upon seeing F2 being affected by B1's movement, I point and indicate batter's interference as I come from behind HP to administer the penalties. There was no squawking about the call, just a question about what had happened as OC was watching the play at 2B, not the missed bunt. The more I think about it, the more I doubt my call since B1 was simply returning to a "normal" position from squaring to bunt. I know this is a HTBT, but does it sound legit?
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A friend and I were talking this weekend about a play he saw in the game before his. Situation - Competitive collegiate wooden bat league, R1, no outs. R1 breaks to second on the pitch, batter steps back out of the box (away from catcher). F2 misplays the catch and the ball bounces back toward the batter. The batter for whatever reason taps the rolling ball back to the catcher with his bat. PU calls the batter out for interference and returns the runner. The excrement hits the rotary device and the offensive manager argues. .... My friend and I both agreed that within the letter of the rules this is probably interference; but there was not a chance to put out the runner once the ball rolled that far away and common sense should have dictated a no call. We thought this was grabbing the dirty end of the stick and not a word would have been said with a no call. Thoughts?
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