Can this be interference?

[Little Ott]

Bases loaded.  F1 throws ball four in the dirt that hits the catcher and ricochets a few feet toward first.  As the batter-runner jogs toward first, he knocks the ball back to the catcher with his bat.  Lots of drama follows soon after.

I have no interference because there was no play to be made.  All the base runners were advancing by the award and there can't be interference unless there is a play to be made.

Agree?  Disagree?  Citation?

Thanks

[The Man in Blue]

No interference, dead ball so that nobody advances any further.

NFHS: 

As you said, no play to be made 2-21-1(a), so you don't have interference.  

Dead ball, don't do that.  I'm treating it like the on deck batter picking up the ball and handing it to the catcher.  

 

Case play 2.21.1 Situation C has an unintentional kick on an uncaught third strike, and it holds the batter is not out unless it is intentional and that the ball remains live.

It isn't 1:1.  

 

[noumpere]

Can it be interference?  Yes. 
 

Is it?  Not likely as described. 
 

Admonish BR to leave the ball alone. 

[Little Ott]

Thanks.

[The Man in Blue]

I turned this one over in my mind some more, and I want to add some third-world wrinkles to help understand application of this.  Critique me as you will:

IF the batter-runner intentionally hit the ball away from the catcher in an effort to create a play.  I now have interference and a penalty to apply: BR out, NO runners advance since they are no longer forced to advance.

If the bater-runner is attempting to hit the ball back to the catcher but hits it errantly, and the ball squirts away . . . I am sticking with dead-ball, don't do that as his action was still unintentional (in regards to a play).

 

 

So, @Little Ott . . . tell us the rest of the story!  What was the drama that ensued and how did it play out?

[BigBlue4u]

20 hours ago, Little Ott said:

I have no interference because there was no play to be made.  All the base runners were advancing by the award and there can't be interference unless there is a play to be made.

And, you also can have no interference if the umpire judges the bat toss was unintentional.

[The Man in Blue]

6 hours ago, BigBlue4u said:

And, you also can have no interference if the umpire judges the bat toss was unintentional.

Toss?  I read it as the batter was trying to help by using the bat to tap/hit the ball back to the catcher as the batter was going to first base.