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Illegal to run to first after striking out (with no DTS in effect)?


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Question

Posted

Last night, one of our Little League batters ran to first after a dropped third, despite a runner on first and no outs.  In the confusion and live ball, the runner on first stole second, while the catcher made the unnecessary play to first.  The umpire let the stolen base stand and reminded the batter he was out.

On the one hand, it's the catcher's fault for not knowing the situation.  On the other hand, the batter was running the bases even though he was out, which sounds like it is entering travesty territory.

What's the proper ruling?

Does intent matter (the batter certainly thought he was doing the right thing, the manager who was encouraging him, not so much perhaps)?

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Posted
3 hours ago, Jimurray said:

I didn't think I had to specify but if the retired runner slides legally and hinders the pivot man do you have INT?

 

You said the magic words.  Yes, yes I do by your description.  Just because pro-sports no-call it doesn't mean it is legal everywhere.  

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