A Rod Verbal interference

[mrumpiresir]

I was trying to find a discussion of the play where A Rod says " I got it" as he is running to third base.  My specific question is:

 

Does MLB consider verbal interference as hindering the defense?  I thought they didn't but a literal reading of 7.08(b) suggests the runner could be called out.

 

What is the interpretation and is there an approved ruling?

[noumpere]

MLB or OBR?

 

In all the games I do under OBR, I'd get an out on that type of play.

[Senor Azul]

The play you are asking about occurred in May 2007 in Toronto. And as luck would have it, it is used as an example to illustrate the rule in Carl Childress' BRD. Using pro rules (OBR) interference may not be a verbal act. The supporting rule is the definition of the term "interference" in Rule 2.00 which makes no mention of verbal interference. In ARod's case, he was successful in getting the infielder to miss the pop up and there was no penalty. Of course, the Blue Jays called his act "bush league."

 

Both Fed and NCAA include verbal interference in their respective definitions of the term "interference."

[MikeSafari]

Of course, the Blue Jays called his act "bush league."

 

Because it was bush league.

 

/Canadian

[Senor Azul]

Yankees v Blue Jays, 2 out, Alex Rodriguez on second. B1 pops up between short and third. As A-Rod runs between the fielders, he yells at them. The ball falls to the ground. RULING: In Fed/NCAA, A-Rod is out. In OBR, there is no interference.

 

That's the play verbatim from the BRD. The game was played on May 30, 2007, in Toronto. The umpires who worked the game were Eric Cooper, Mike Reilly, Jeff Kellogg, and Chad Fairchild. There were no ejections. To this day there is no verbal interference in OBR.

 

I noticed a post that stated he would get an out in his games played under OBR and it even received two "likes." Even though it is technically a wrong answer, I would agree that there would be a very strong inclination to make the same call for all umpires. After all, the action taken by A-Rod was and is quite reprehensible (and there should be a rule against it). I am wondering, though, how you would justify such a call if an astute manager challenged your ruling

[Replacematt]

Yankees v Blue Jays, 2 out, Alex Rodriguez on second. B1 pops up between short and third. As A-Rod runs between the fielders, he yells at them. The ball falls to the ground. RULING: In Fed/NCAA, A-Rod is out. In OBR, there is no interference.

 

That's the play verbatim from the BRD. The game was played on May 30, 2007, in Toronto. The umpires who worked the game were Eric Cooper, Mike Reilly, Jeff Kellogg, and Chad Fairchild. There were no ejections. To this day there is no verbal interference in OBR.

 

I noticed a post that stated he would get an out in his games played under OBR and it even received two "likes." Even though it is technically a wrong answer, I would agree that there would be a very strong inclination to make the same call for all umpires. After all, the action taken by A-Rod was and is quite reprehensible (and there should be a rule against it). I am wondering, though, how you would justify such a call if an astute manager challenged your ruling

I wouldn't, because there's no justification and I wouldn't make it. When I see things that are bush, I wait for the pitch to the ribs, and then see if it escalates after that.

[noumpere]

I agree with Matt at the levels he does and the levels I do (and I am not saying they are the same).  But at lower levels, then I think you can get it.