Does this run count

[Mwilcher]

12U USSSA tournament. Bases loaded, 2 outs, 2 strikes. Runner on 3B steals home (left handed pitcher) and slides across plate as pitch is delivered to catcher. Batter moves to back of box to allow runner to allow access to plate. Called strike 3, does the run count?

[Jocko]

 

Instead of backing away from the plate in any way, he actually steps ON home plate! Gets plunked hard in the stomach. PU correctly calls interference, R3 out and batter stays there with a strike, though he had to be subbed as he couldn't stand up after taking a fastball to the gut. And for that he was lucky it didn't hit somewhere more critical.Sometimes don't know who is more clueless at this level...players or coaches!

PU was wrong. This is a dead-ball strike. Runners return.I don't have an OBR reference but Fed Case 8-3-1a "With R1/R2/R3 and one out R3 attempts to steal home. With a 1-2 count, the pitch hits R3 while the ball is in the strike zone. RULING: Ball becomes dead immediately and batter is out because of the 3rd strike. All baserunners are awarded one base from TOP and R1 scores. (5-1-1a 6-1-4, 8-1-1 note 1, 9-1-1-a)"*I changed the R1,2,&3 for carity and omitted the a) b) option to be concise.So if there were a 2-0 count, there are no outs, R3 scores, all other runners advance 1, and B5 has a 2-1 count.Does this seem completely effed up to anyone else?No it doesnt seem effed up and its the same ruling in all codes.  the pitch counts (ball or strike), the run scores, runners advance.  The pro reference is 5.09(h)what gets me is the OT is the one who screwed up. F1 threw a strike. F2 was prevented from receiving it by R3. DT did nothing outside expectation yet they're "punished" because R3 effectively intercepted a legal pitch. All other runners advance. I would love to know the rationale behind this thinking. Scor the run on what is effectively R3 INT and advance all other runners. :

Someone please enlighten me

[noumpere]

Score the run is obvious to me.  If R3 gets hit with the pitch, the chances of F2 catching the pitch and taggin him (absent the contact) would be nearly non-existent.  I think and maybe the coach needs to confirm this that if R3 is stealing home the other runners are going on the pitch as well so that's the rational for advancing them.

 

Now, if someone wanted to propose a rules change similar to CI that the runners advance only if they were already stealing then I maybe could get behind that.

[Replacematt]

There is no right for F2 to receive the pitch. The pitch, for lack of a better term, belongs to the offense.

[UmpJM]

Jocko,

 

The "rationale" goes back to earlier times in baseball when steals of home were more common. At the time, the rule was that if a runner is hit by a pitch, the ball was immediately dead and runners were returned to their TOP base.

 

Knowing this, crafty pitchers would intentionally throw at the runner when they were stealing home - if they managed to hit the runner, he had to go back. Therefore, they implemented the rule that a runner hit by a pitch was a one base award.

 

JM

[Jocko]

That makes sense. I always look to the DT side. He's out until he's safe. It's a strike until it's a ball. Along those lines, I'm looking for ways R3 could mfg this scenario. It's theoretically possible.

[Ring 'em Up]

Instead of backing away from the plate in any way, he actually steps ON home plate!  Gets plunked hard in the stomach.  PU correctly calls interference, R3 out and batter stays there with a strike, though he had to be subbed as he couldn't stand up after taking a fastball to the gut.  And for that he was lucky it didn't hit somewhere more critical.

Sometimes don't know who is more clueless at this level...players or coaches!

 

PU was wrong. This is a dead-ball strike. Runners return.

.

+1 from BigRed, I just went thru this 2 weekends ago.

 

ron-