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Posted

This is similar to the Alex Casilla play at third base from July in which R3 was declared out upon running through third base and into left field on his return during a rundown with R2 occupying third base.

Assuming both runners were tagged while occupying second base, following runner B1 would be declared out as this was not a force play (Rule 7.03[a]). Braun appears to make no attempt to advance toward third base and has not passed runner R1; therefore, he is not out for passing (Rule 7.08[h]); had he passed R1, he would have been out, not R1. Braun is likely out for either leaving his baseline (Rule 7.08[a][1]) or abandonment (Rule 7.08[a][2]), an argument may be made either way, though I enjoy the OOB rationale (as soon as he contacts second base from the south side [1B side], he has three feet on the opposite side [north side] before he is technically out of the baseline). Under no circumstance, however, given this play, is R1 out for after missing second base initially, he goes back to tag and ends up occupying second for the remainder of the play.

In short, no, this would not have been a double play.

Posted

This is similar to the Alex Casilla play at third base from July in which R3 was declared out upon running through third base and into left field on his return during a rundown with R2 occupying third base.

Assuming both runners were tagged while occupying second base, following runner B1 would be declared out as this was not a force play (Rule 7.03[a]). Braun appears to make no attempt to advance toward third base and has not passed runner R1; therefore, he is not out for passing (Rule 7.08[h]); had he passed R1, he would have been out, not R1. Braun is likely out for either leaving his baseline (Rule 7.08[a][1]) or abandonment (Rule 7.08[a][2]), an argument may be made either way, though I enjoy the OOB rationale (as soon as he contacts second base from the south side [1B side], he has three feet on the opposite side [north side] before he is technically out of the baseline). Under no circumstance, however, given this play, is R1 out for after missing second base initially, he goes back to tag and ends up occupying second for the remainder of the play.

In short, no, this would not have been a double play.

doesn't the runner create his own baseline, so technically braun isn't avoiding a tag? and still hasn't touched 2nd? so wouldn't he still have to either touch 2nd and pass R1 to be called out or be tagged by the fielder?

Posted

doesn't the runner create his own baseline, so technically braun isn't avoiding a tag? and still hasn't touched 2nd? so wouldn't he still have to either touch 2nd and pass R1 to be called out or be tagged by the fielder?

I had F4 (or whoever it was) attempting a tag on R1, so I had his line established at that point. He was being chased, after all.

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