Runner Interference

[semper_fi_72]

LL Senior Game

I am on the bases.

1 out, basses loaded, 3-2 count on batter.

F1 pitching from wind up.

F1 starts his motion and R3 starts tearing for home.

R3 slides head first into HP as Batter squares to butt.

Batter bunts the ball into R3 as he is sliding over the plate.

Partner calls time and kills the ball.

OC comes out and asks if run counts.

Partner says yes run counts and batter is out.

I rush in from C position and talk to him.

I advise him less than 2 outs runner is out and batter gets 1B.

We than advise both benches of the call.

No arguments from either.

If batter had taken the pitch they would have scored a run whether it was a ball or a strike.

[Mr Umpire]

If it is runner INT, why would it matter how many outs there are? The runner is out every time when he is struck by a batted fair ball in this type of situation. The batter is only out when it is batter INT.

Does it matter if it is LL or not? Don't all codes agree on that? Maybe I am misunderstanding when the runner made contact with the ball. Was it after he scored and the ball was touched in fair territory? If so, I would have the batter out as well due to INT by a retired runner or offensive teammate. Thus, the play would be on the batter and he is out. Once the runner legally scored, he cannot be called out for any reason (I don't think MC negates it either if it occurs after the runner scores though I could be wrong about that for FED or NCAA).

I am curious to see if anyone would have a "play on" reason. But, if I understand the runner has already scored, then he cannot be out on this. Little more detail about this please.

Edited June 8, 2010 by Mr Umpire

[Tyennie]

Also must consider: Did the ball strike the runner, in foul territory? If so then foul ball - send him back, batter is out for bunting foul on third strike. Had a play similar to this a looonnnggg time ago. except the runner was hit in the face with the ball - blood everywhere!:wow:

[Rich Ives]

LL Senior Game

I am on the bases.

1 out, basses loaded, 3-2 count on batter.

F1 pitching from wind up.

F1 starts his motion and R3 starts tearing for home.

R3 slides head first into HP as Batter squares to butt.

Batter bunts the ball into R3 as he is sliding over the plate.

Partner calls time and kills the ball.

OC comes out and asks if run counts.

Partner says yes run counts and batter is out.

I rush in from C position and talk to him.

I advise him less than 2 outs runner is out and batter gets 1B.

We than advise both benches of the call.

No arguments from either.

If batter had taken the pitch they would have scored a run whether it was a ball or a strike.

DUH!

The runner was hit by a batted ball.

If it was in fair territory the runner is out and the batter gets 1B. (The batter gets 1B even if it was the third out - the next batter leads off the next inning)

If it was in foul territory it's just a foul ball - batter out for bunting foul on third strike. Runner returns. Whether or not the runner had scored doesn't matter- it's a batted foul ball - runner returns.

If the batter had taken the pitch the run would NOT count if the pitch was strike three for the third out.

and WHY are they running a suicide squeeze with two strikes?

Edited June 8, 2010 by Rich Ives

[noumpere]

If R3 scored first and was hit in fair territory, I have "play on."

[Guest]

If R3 scored first and was hit in fair territory, I have "play on."

That would be interference by a teammate (who has just scored) under 7.09e which means the batter is out and, hey what do you know, no run.

As you can see, MUCH dirtier of an end to pick up, so unless its cut and dried that he had scored first, rule a runner was hit by a fair (or foul if thats the case) ball.

[Mr Umpire]

That would be interference by a teammate (who has just scored) under 7.09e which means the batter is out and, hey what do you know, no run.

If this is the case, run scores b/c there are less than 2 outs at the time of the occurrence for the OP.