Obstruction

[Umpire in Chief]

Guys I just wanted to cover obstruction really quickly. I see too many times where even veteran umpires kick these calls.

Johneng posted a good learning device for determining obs vs. int on his blog and really worth a view. But I wanted to cover ruling on obstruction.

Definition: is the act of a fielder who, while not in possession of the ball and not in the act of fielding the ball, impedes the progress of any runner.

7.06 When obstruction occurs, the umpire shall call or signal “Obstruction.”

(a) If a play is being made on the obstructed runner, or if the batter-runner is obstructed before he touches first base, the ball is dead and all runners shall advance, without liability to be put out, to the bases they would have reached, in the umpire’s judgment, if there had been no obstruction. The obstructed runner shall be awarded at least one base beyond the base he had last legally touched before the obstruction. Any preceding runners, forced to advance by the award of bases as the penalty for obstruction, shall advance without liability to be put out.

Rule 7.06(a) Comment: When a play is being made on an obstructed runner, the umpire shall signal obstruction in the same manner that he calls “Time,” with both hands overhead. The ball is immediately dead when this signal is given; however, should a thrown ball be in flight before the obstruction is called by the umpire, the runners are to be awarded such bases on wild throws as they would have been awarded had not obstruction occurred. On a play where a runner was trapped between second and third and obstructed by the third baseman going into third base while the throw is in flight from the shortstop, if such throw goes into the dugout the obstructed runner is to be awarded home base. Any other runners on base in this situation would also be awarded two bases from the base they last legally touched before obstruction was called.

( If no play is being made on the obstructed runner, the play shall proceed until no further action is possible. The umpire shall then call “Time” and impose such penalties, if any, as in his judgment will nullify the act of obstruction.

Comment: Under 7.06( when the ball is not dead on obstruction and an obstructed runner advances beyond the base which, in the umpire’s judgment, he would have been awarded because of being obstructed, he does so at his own peril and may be tagged out. This is a judgment call.

NOTE: The catcher, without the ball in his possession, has no right to block the pathway of the runner attempting to score. The base line belongs to the runner and the catcher should be there only when he is fielding a ball or when he already has the ball in his hand.

I primarily want to discuss type "b" obstruction. Type "b" is a delayed dead ball. This is key to remember also the comment on type "b" probably needs to be explained better.

Here are a couple of situations.

Situation 1: Everything on the base umpire

BR hits a ball in the gap for an easy double possibly more. He is obstructed by F3 after rounding first.

A: He stops at second, safely, on his own free will.

B: He rounds second hard and is thrown out by a country mile at third.

C: He rounds second hard and is tagged just before reaching 3rd base.

D: He rounds 2nd then retreats back to second where the cut off man guns him out.

E: He goes for second and is tagged before reaching the base

F: After being obstructed voluntarily returns to first.

RULING on A: The obstruction is ignored

Mechanic: Nothing

RULING on B: BR is out obstruction is ignored. (if he was knocked flat on his arse by F3 you may still enforce the obstruction)

Mechanic: He's out

RULING on C: Enforce the obstruction, if it was that close with the obstruction, chances are he would have been safe without it.

Mechanic: At the conclusion of the play call "Time" NOT safe or out. Then make your ruling. "We had obstruction by the first baseman, the runner is being awarded third"

RULING on D: Ignore the obstruction he had advanced 1 base having legally acquired 2nd and was at his own peril.

Mechanic: He's out!

RULING on E: Enforce the obstruction

Mechanic: At the conclusion of the play call "Time" NOT safe or out. Then make your ruling. "We had obstruction by the first baseman, the runner is being awarded second"

RULING on F: Enforce the obstruction

Mechanic: At the conclusion of the play call "Time." Then make your ruling. "We had obstruction by the first baseman, the runner is being awarded second"

Situation 2:

R2 is obstructed by F5 before reaching 3rd.

A: R2 reaches home safely.

B: R2 is tagged at home by the catcher immediately before reaching the plate

C: R2 voluntarily retreats to or stays at 3rd safely

D: R2 is tagged at 3rd

RULING on A: The obstruction is ignored

Mechanic: Nothing

RULING on B: Enforce the obstruction, if it was that close with the obstruction, chances are he would have been safe without it.

Mechanic: At the conclusion of the play PU having seen and heard his partner's obstruction call, calls "Time" NOT safe or out. Then make your ruling. "We had obstruction by the third baseman, the runner is being awarded home"

RULING on C: Ignore the obstruction he had advanced 1 base having legally acquired 3rd.

Mechanic: Nothing

RULING on D: Enforce the obstruction

Mechanic: At the conclusion of the play call "Time" NOT safe or out. Then make your ruling. "We had obstruction by the third baseman, the runner is being awarded third"

My point being the rule states he is protected at least one base beyond his last legally aquired base. NOT only one base. Depending on the situation he may be protected multiple bases. Don't fall into the mindset of well he acquired the next base so obstruction is off the table. Knowing the proper way to enforce or not enforce an obstruction call is a key factor in taking your game, as an umpire, to the next level.

Edited July 22, 2008 by Umpire in Chief
BigUmp56 made a great point

[BigUmp56]

My point being the rule states he is protected at least one base beyond his last legally aquired base. NOT only one base.

UIC,

You mentioned that you planned on touching primarily on type B obstruction. If that's the case, what you've said in the above snip isn't exactly true.

Tim.

[Umpire in Chief]

Tim,

Glad to have you back, it's been a while.

Yes, I did get off point and took my post in a different direction than I originally intended. I also said "really quickly" so much for that too.

Good Catch. :D

[BigUmp56]

Tim,

Glad to have you back, it's been a while.

Yes, I did get off point and took my post in a different direction than I originally intended. I also said "really quickly" so much for that too.

Good Catch.

There wasn't a doubt in my mind about you knowing the rule. I just didn't want a newb to think he could automatically award at least one advance base on a type B obstruction.....................

Tim.

[HoosierBlue]

Question:

R1 with no outs.

Infield shifted right for a lefty.

F6 is playing straight up the middle.

Batter chops a TMDP ball up the middle.

R1 runs right into F4 and goes down hard.

F6 fields the ball, steps on the bag, and fires to F3 for a DP.

Was a play being made on R1 at the time of the collision?

If yes, then by rule, he's awarded 2B.

If not, then by judgment, he may or may not be awarded 2B.

I realize this is semantics, but as Tim implied, many umps trip easily over semantics.

[Umpire in Chief]

This doesn't fit the textbook definition of either A or B (probably why you posed the question ), and why we get paid to make the calls. My thoughts would be:

1. That no play was being made on R1 when the collision occurred because the ball was fielded by F6 and he would have been forced out regardless. I can see how one would make an argument for type B with no call on the obstruction and the DP stand. Be ready to EJ the OC.

2. Now the double play probably would have happened even w/o the obstruction, with the ball being hit directly to F6 playing up the middle. But once again remembering my crotchety old friend, "Never reward bad baseball" My ruling would be this is type A. Kill the ball immediately award R1 2nd and BR 1st, and be ready for a conversation with the DC.

Getting beyond cute sayings, I would say F6 was making the immanent play (the force) on the runner even though R1 was probably not even half way to 2nd, but the act of tagging the base is a play. The fact that the obstruction was by F4 without the ball and not making a play is extraeneous, the actual play was by F6 on R1, who was obstructed. As much as I want outs and would love to consider this type B to get the DP, My ruling is type A.

What say ye?

Edited August 14, 2008 by Umpire in Chief
confusing, Changed the lines from A & B to 1 & 2 as not to confuse type A & B obs.

[Kyle_Stevens]

Seeing the play in my head, my instinct would be to give R1 second and BR first, since the runner goes down to the ground.

What if the runner was slightly bumped? Given F4 and R1's contact wasn't intentional/malicious, I think I would have had nothing and the double play stands.

[LMSANS]

I would have to go with no play on R1, because if I read the description right F6 is playing on the batted ball at the time of the OBS.

At the same time, I would have difficulty calling OBS at all. There is no advantage gained. Unless of course it is intentional or malicious.

Similar play: B1 hits a routine fly ball to F7 and in rounding first F3 obstructs B1 (standing on base). Do we then award B1 1B and negate the out?

Edited August 8, 2008 by LMSANS

[HoosierBlue]

Absent intent by F4, I would call this nothing, just like OBS on the batter on a fly ball that was caught (a clear interp exists for that scenario), and would not invoke a 1-base award. I would say that the play was being made on the force situation ... not the actual runner ... and the runner was out by a country mile ... no free lunches.

Bring on the OC.

With intent by F4, I'm giving R1 2B on type B OBS and may have an EJ if it was malicious.

Bring on the DC.

Regarding the batter, with no intent, there is no justification to give him 1st base.

With intent, I might determine that F4 blocked R1 clearly to break up a DP and both are safe.

I think this one slips between the rules and interps and lands in the world of common sense and justice, which is why I posted it.

[BigUmp56]

Question:

R1 with no outs.

Infield shifted right for a lefty.

F6 is playing straight up the middle.

Batter chops a TMDP ball up the middle.

R1 runs right into F4 and goes down hard.

F6 fields the ball, steps on the bag, and fires to F3 for a DP.

Was a play being made on R1 at the time of the collision?

If yes, then by rule, he's awarded 2B.

If not, then by judgment, he may or may not be awarded 2B.

I realize this is semantics, but as Tim implied, many umps trip easily over semantics.

Hoosier,

The call would depend both the timing of the throw by F6 to retire R1 on the force at second, and how strongly you believe in Roder's definition of a "play." Roder contends that any time a ball is thrown to a fielder in an attempt to retire a runner, a play on the runner had begun upon release of the throw. It's a good play to use as food for thought. For me, if the throw to second was released at the time of the obstruction, or immediately after it, I believe I'd call type A.

Tim.

[PeteBooth]

Definition: is the act of a fielder who, while not in possession of the ball and not in the act of fielding the ball, impedes the progress of any runner.

UIC , this is the STRICT definition for OBR , HOWEVER, for most of the ball we call ie; NCAA / FED / LEGION / LL etc. this statement is no longer valid

The fielder now has to have ACTUAL possession of the ball. In FED the terminology used to be "is the play imminent"

Reason for change: In NCAA there was a Texas First basemen Ontavaros if memory serves who would go down on one knee PRIOR to F1 releasing the ball on pick-off attempts. Tesas had many successful pick offs that year and subsequently the rule was changed.

In addition too many F2's were taken FULL advanatage of the term "in the act of fielding" and were set-up at home plate blocking R3's path way ahead of time. Also, unlike the PROS, even though a runner is obstructed does not give them the right to simply "plow" into F2 hence the change in the defintiion.

Therefore, at least in today's "world" a new "learning" curve for OBS needs to be written.

NOTE: In a game played by FED rules the obstructed runner ALWAYS gets a minimum of a one base award from his position at the time of the OBS.

Pete Booth

[PeteBooth]

Question:

R1 with no outs.

Infield shifted right for a lefty.

F6 is playing straight up the middle.

Batter chops a TMDP ball up the middle.

R1 runs right into F4 and goes down hard.

F6 fields the ball, steps on the bag, and fires to F3 for a DP.

Was a play being made on R1 at the time of the collision?

If yes, then by rule, he's awarded 2B.

If not, then by judgment, he may or may not be awarded 2B.

I realize this is semantics, but as Tim implied, many umps trip easily over semantics.

This exact play generated a much heated debate on another Forum (eteamz) years ago. Some said Type "A" some said Type "B" and some even said that Type "B" could turn into Type "A" As mentioned a very heated discussion.

FWIW in a game played by FED rules R1 is automatically awarded second base.

Pete Booth

[mstaylor]

I was a part of that obstruction discussion and trust me type B will never turn into Type A. I know that Pete wasn't saying it is but I just wanted to make sure that doesn't get started again. In the play with th TMDP it is going to be type A obstruction if the R1 is indeed obstructed. That's the part you have to umpire. If the runner is far enough away from second that there is no way he was going to make it then he wasn't obstructed.