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Showing results for tags 'balk'.
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nothing special ...I just like seeing balks and seeing them called ............. Your browser does not support iframes.
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Couple of questions about a call I had the other night with my 11u team. 1) I had a balk called on a right handed pitcher when he threw to pick off a runner at first. The umpire claimed that while he did move his right foot first with the “hop” step that I teach, he didn’t have a definite break with the rubber with that foot. I tried to get him to quantify what a definite break was but to no avail. He claimed it had to be a visible step with his “on rubber” foot, but I have yet to find this in the rules. My understanding is that if a right hand pitcher moves his right foot first regardless of the amount, and he completes his throw to first it is NOT a balk. 2) Runner on first, right handed pitcher lifts his left (off rubber leg) leg and runner on first takes off on first movement to steal second, Pitcher in one continuous motion does the step over move to second base and throws said runner out. Umpire calls balk. I have scoured the forums and read the rule and I am still convinced that it is not a balk because it is throwing to a base in making a play. If said runner didn’t run then it would be a balk. Balk Rule 8.05(d) The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play; Rule 8.05(d) Comment: When determining whether the pitcher throws or feints a throw to an unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play, the umpire should consider whether a runner on the previous base demonstrates or otherwise creates an impression of his intent to advance to such unoccupied base. A follow up question is; does that same move by a left hand pitcher apply. In other words if a left hand pitcher with raising his right leg sees a runner take off to second base can he continue that motion to a step over move and throw to second base?
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Help. I see nothing here. http://mlb.mlb.com/video/play.jsp?content_id=26979915&c_id=mlb#/copy
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I have a feeling this has been a common topic but I can't seem to find any answers that specifically answer this as right or wrong so please help... Situation: Runner on 1st only - Pitcher set position. Pitcher begins wind up and runner takes off to steal second base. Pitcher turns and throws to player covering 2nd base to tag runner on the steal. Now here's the controversy...all umpires I speak with on this give me different answers. Some say balk, some say legal. I know, and I have shown those calling it a balk, that rule 8.05(m)(b) gives a pitcher the right to make this move as 2nd base is not considered occupied in this situation. The next dilemma is this...If the pitcher makes this move and then the runner stops and goes back to 1st, I am being told that it is NOW a balk because the runner stalling his movement to 2nd cancels the pitchers justification to throw to 2nd "for the purpose of making a play" since the runner is not stealing. My problem, and hope for clarification for, is this accurate? Is the runner stalling a way to "defeat" the pitcher able to throw to 2nd during a 1st to 2nd steal or is it still a legal move whether the runner continues or stops? Thank you for any help and clarification I can get because it's been a point of contention since before the season began, we have 3 games left and I STILL don't have an answer so I don't let my pitchers make the move in fear of an unknown balk call because of an umpires interpretation of the two lines; (1)"for the purposes of making a play" and (2)"With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base" Because depending on interpretation, the second line could cover the move as legal regardless of the runner stopping his steal or not. -Richard
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Hi, everyone. I'm taking an umpire clinic this winter and have been studying up on some things, as well as taking in a lot of great info on this forum. While watching the Royals game the other night -- forgive me, I can't remember which one or who the pitcher was -- a relief pitcher came in and had a strange motion while in the stretch with runners on. After he came set, he parted his hands while raising his lead foot -- like he was starting his motion. But then he'd place his foot back down and return his hand to his glove. Then he'd start his motion the same way, but proceeded to deliver the pitch. He did this regularly, although not every the time. Anyone else see or notice this? Why wasn't it called a balk?
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I found this by searching "balk" under videos. Obviously this is an EJ also, but .... Must have been a 'no stop', yes? http://m.mlb.com/video/v36630407
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http://m.mlb.com/video/v36584239
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....and he acts like he doesn't know what he did ?!? http://m.mlb.com/video/v36471479
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Had an interesting thing happen this past weekend at a clinic. We all know that balk rules differ from rule book to rule book. So here's the question: 1. How do you verbalize a balk call, and...2. What physical mechanic do you use when you call it? We got several different responses from our college instructors...I'd like to hear what you all think!!
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Must be the KC feed ........ idiots there too! "he deceived the runner" http://m.mlb.com/video/v36224329
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So, Peavy gets tossed the other day for complaining about a balk that wasn't ........and the next day he pulls this beauty!!! Karma's a b1tch Jake! LOL http://m.mlb.com/video/v35668839
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http://m.mlb.com/video/v34422937/?query=Ejection
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Easy one, ......I'm surprised U3 didn't see this ......... http://m.mlb.com/video/v33741437
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Question about Rule 8.01© as it relates to Rule 8.05(a) At what point does a movement become a pitcher's natural pitching motion and commit him to the pitch? I was talking with fellow umpires at tournament this past weekend about the differences afforded right and left handed pitchers regarding these rules in their pick-off moves to first base, and third obversely). In both scenarios the free foot does not break the plane of the rubber and there is no interrupted motion, so those are not issues. Are these the correct rulings? 1. A left handed pitcher is allowed to lift his free foot, even to the point that the thigh is parallel to the ground , the same initial motion as his natural pitching motion, and then throw to first. (no-balk) 2. A right handed pitcher is not allowed to lift his free foot and throw to first, he must use a "spin move" thus jumping with both feet at the same time. If the right handed pitcher lifts the free foot but not the pivot foot (even though there is no motion toward the plate) it is considered a natural pitching motion and thus a balk. My argument is OBR only states that a natural pitching motion commits the pitcher to the pitch, and that the pitcher must step ahead of the throw. It is impossible to step and throw without moving the knee and lifting the free foot from the ground. OBR makes no mention or requirement of a "spin move." Why would we allow the left handed pitcher to start with their natural pitching motion then throw to first and not the right hander? In my mind it is about the intent to deceive and where the free foot lands. Left handed pitchers are clearly trying to deceive the runner when they lift the free leg like they are going to pitch then throw to first and right handed pitcher isn't fooling anyone by simply stepping and throwing to first.
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The rule states that if a pitcher intentionally or unintentionally drops the ball it is a balk. My question is: If the pitcher starts his delivery, but drops the ball before before his hands is going forward, should I rule it a ball, or a balk? Thanks for your help...
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There was a recent thread with a situation similar to this one but its not quite the same so I thought I'd throw it out there for you guys.......... 11U tournament, NFHS rules. Runner on first, RHP on mound. Pitcher stretches then comes set, all legally, foot engaged with pitchers plate. Starts motion from set position, non-pivot foot comes back behind the pitchers plate, then he does a perfect spin move for a pickoff throw to 2B. Spins, steps towards the base, but then realizes there's no runner there (nor is any fielder covering the bag, naturally) and then doesnt throw. I balk him - in this case, tournament rules play one warning per pitcher, this was first occurrence, so I warn him. DC is all over me about the warning. I explain that P cannot feint towards an unoccupied bag. He says that when he spun around, his foot disengaged with the pitchers plate and therefore he became a fielder and thus he was entitled to do anything he wanted ("he could throw the ball into left field if he wanted to"). I disagreed with him and told him that a feint towards an unoccupied bag was an attempt to deceive the runner (although in retrospect the kid just screwed up, in my opinion - but at the time the play was very awkward, as you might imagine). In the end there was no harm and no foul, but I wanted to be sure I got it right. I cite NFHS 6.2.4.b - did I make the right call?
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Tuesday night game in Pittsburg. Cubs lead 7-3 Bolton of ninth. Ramirez, the Cubs reliever is in contact with thevpitcher's plate when he steps directly toward 1st base and throws the baseball into the ground not more than 10 feet from himself and the ball rolls weakly and without proper aim toward short right field where the Cubs 1st baseman picks the ball up and obviously has no play, since he is 20 feet from 1st base and was positioned behind R-1 when the pitcher turned and saw him off the bag and drilled an extant throw into the ground, which rolled weakly toward short right field. I saw a clip only on M.L.B. Network. No one called a balk and a ball was awarded to the batter. The umpires huddled up with the Cubs manager and they were smiling and laughing. Anyone see this game and not just the mlb network clip? Can you tell me why this is not a balk? Pitcher is required to throw to the bag when in contact with the pitchers plate This throw lacked aim and momentum. The 1st baseman had no play. MLB network reported that a throw toward short right field was called a ball
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http://m.mlb.com/video/v33224417
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Hi. I just read that if the pitcher is not on the rubber and the catcher gives the pitch signals it is a balk? How true is this statement?
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You don't see this much at this level ............ http://m.mlb.com/video/v33250513
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this is a safe out replay ....but watch the F2's clever move ....and listen to these flipping blow-hards from Colorado ?!?! UN BELIEBABLE !!!!!!!!!!! : http://m.mlb.com/video/topic/63817564/v32983093/sdcol-umpires-review-safe-call-on-pickoff-in-7th
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Quick question on one that I have never heard before. I coach a 10U team and a 14U team but this was a new one and I would like the pros to confirm or correct. Right hand pitcher (bases loaded) takes the rubber, so right foot is on the rubber both hands are at his side, left foot is stationary on the mound, then he comes set without moving his left foot. So he brings his glove and ball hand up from each side of his body and ball hand goes into his glove in front of his chest, he comes to a complete set, no movement what so ever, but the left foot never moves. Then he starts his left leg up and into a "normal" pitching motion and starts to delivers a pitch. But before he can the ump calls a balk and advances the runners. I am not happy and his explanation is that he didn't move his left foot while coming set. Just when you thought you have seen it all, baseball rewards you with something new. So is that a condition of coming set or what? Thanks scott
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Two questions arose in a game I was coaching tonight, and I am looking for some clarification. First, one of my base runners stepped off the base while the pitcher was in his delivery motion and the umpire stopped the game and called the runner out. I had never heard of this interpretation of the rule before, but the umpire assured me that was the rule. Can anyone shed any light on this one? The second involves the pitchers motion. The team we were playing had their pitchers stopping their motion when their "non-plant leg" was (left leg for RH pitchers) was at the top of their kick motion. I did not think the pitcher could stop his motion during the pitch, but the coach for the other team pointed out the Japanese pitchers in the LLWS seem to stop for a couple of seconds. Can you tell me why this move is legal and not a balk? Thanks.
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In a game last night we had a man on 3rd. The pitcher is in the set position, picks up his left leg (right hander) and steps directly towards third, and making a throwing motion - but stops short of throwing the ball. I immediately called for a balk, as did my 3rd base coach, and the umpire agreed. However, the chief umpire told me I'm wrong and that the only base(s) the pitcher must throw to if he steps towards them are first and home. I'd argue a fake throw to third from the set is a balk. Am I wrong? Thanks!
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Runner on 1st, pitcher in stretch mode. If pitcher disengages his foot from the rubber, can he fake the throw to 1st or does he have to complete the throw? Once he steps off the rubber he's another infielder, correct?
