Double Up

Using the same scenario, runner fails to tag up, crosses home plate but the defense throws the ball into third base and the F5 steps on the bag. The defense must formally announce there intention to appeal, is that correct? It's not like after the runner leaves early and F5 steps on the base w/ the ball the rule is enforced, right? The defense must declare that they are appearing R3 leaving early, correct?

These were two different situations in two different days... two completely different questions in my opinion. I appreciate Maven for his response. Q1, Yes, Q2, Yes, Q3, Yes. I've read the rules, this situation was no clear to me, thus the post in the forum. Maybe you all may know every single rule verbatim, but not all of the audience does. My questions are not only for my own understanding , but for those who may also have similar questions. Thank you.

Runners on 1st and 3rd base and R1 leaves early towards 2B. Pitcher reaction was a jump-spin, releasing his "in contact foot" in front of the pitchers plate in making a move towards 2b. Here's where it got tricky, the Pitcher failed to deliver the ball, instead feinting to 2b. What's the proper call? I made no call, simply took note.

Wow, my partner blew it and had me convinced. Actually, saw the same thing in the next game, this time I called it thinking I just learned something new. Thanks all for the clarification

Pitcher fails to disengage on inside move to 2B; meaning the pitcher lifts his leg and swing around towards 2B but his foot remains in contact with the pitching rubber, while feinting a throw to 2B. Balk, correct?

Very well, thank you! I think I remember reading 6.01(a)(5) at some int. obviously It did not stick well enough at that time. It certainly helps to have additional context in which to apply the ruling

This brings up another question... RHP and R1 breaks early for 2B (probably with R3 laying in wait). Pitcher does not disengage, but rather jump spins and throws ahead of R1 to the SS at 2B. I'm sure this has probably been answered somewhere in the forums before because i can see most coaches going ape SH*# crazy saying that the RHP failed to disengage. Some reassurance that this is a legal play on the runner attempting to advance and not a balk would be music to my ears. To make it even more disturbing to witness, what if it was R2 who broke early to 3B and the RHP (from the stretch) lifts his leg while in contact and steps towards 3b where he delivers the baseball to the unoccupied base where the runner is advancing. Talk about a mutiny.... in the same scenario allow the RHP or LHP to jump spin in front of the rubber and watch the entire stadium erupt.

Here's 2 situations that are very similar, but yet different. Let's just say OBR.. but if any other rule set has a different result, let's hear that as well. Situation #1: No outs. R1 steals on the pitch, BR K's swinging for the 1st out, but the swing carries him out over the plate, interfering with the catcher's attempt to throw down to 2B on the would be base stealer. The retired batter is already out on the swing, so the only logical explanation here is to call R1 out enforcing the BR interference call, right? Situation #2 Again no outs. RHB strikes out and makes his way back to the 1st base dugout where his team is stationed for the game. In running back to the dugout after striking out, the player is struck by a thrown ball from the catcher, back picking at R1. The ball deflects off the back of the retired batter (a) out of play, or (b) along the fence allowing R1 to advance to R2 standing up. What's the correct call (a and b)? Only reason why I ask is because these exact situations almost happened.... in situation 1, I did not have interference, thus no call to enforce, but it was close to going at as described above. In sit. 2, this would have happened if the catcher decided throw the ball behind R1 who was hung out in no mans land after the batter struck out. The retired batter was clueless an was merely running back to his dugout as it looked like a play was going to be made on R1.

Or as they would say in soccer "Play on"

As the title describes, a thrown ball hits the coach standing in the coaches box behind 1b. Is there any rule that addresses this type of situation?

I read somewhere someone said no L33T, bhahaha. I followed most of that... you lost me a RLI however.

It's been a little quiet around here lately, so I have a general forum question - what are some of the biggest differences between OBR, NCAA, and FED that cause confusion and often times, misinterpretations when officiating at the various levels? Some obvious ones are FED DH rules and FED In contact feints to 3B, but what about the more obscure rules not commonly understood?

to put it in context, the game was 9u and many of the pitchers were just learning the game w/ base stealing for the first time. It was single man, so I cant clearly recount the steps. he was set in the stretch position, R2 broke for third, everyone screamed step off and from what I recall, it was jump spin off to making a throw to 3B.

1. F1 is set and R1 breaks early for 2B. Without disengaging, F1 spins and throws the ball to 2b. Legal or illegal? My interpretation of the balk section is that this is legal. 2. The exact situation was R2 broke to third, and while set the pitcher noticed and threw the ball to 3B who applied a tag. There was some funny footwork in there that we wont discuss, but let's just say the pitcher did not disengage. Is F1 throwing to 3B while engaged after the R2 leaves early legal or illegal action?

was the ball caught or dropped? if it was ruled a catch, out on appeal. if ruled no catch, count the run.

I even walked over told them that i didnt know and made up some SH*#.... and soon as i was finished, everyone was the expert

THAT'S WHY i CAME TO THE SOURCE! APPRECIATE YOUR GUIDANCE

interstering, b/c its runner now... rather than a batter who falls over the plate and interferes w/ a throw down to 2B on a base stealer.

rule set : doesn't matter Wow! Today had R2 stealing on what became ball 4. BR get's hit by the throw from the catcher as he vacates the right hand hitters box. on the way to 1B. what the correct call? I honestly just made up a call and punched R2. some "umpire" in grand stand made a comment about the catcher throwing down from his knees as if that mattered.... suggesting that b/c he threw from his knee their was no interference.

Sometimes its just baseball rule! Exactly why there's umpires. I would have been okay with Interference, but I'm okay w/ no call. WE have the replay, but these guys are making a call live as its happening. The commentators are Dumb AF thou

simple enough

thanks all for the clarifications. learn something new every day!

these were both NFHS games.. i'd be interested in NFHS and OBR. Thanks!

Here's a question for you all... Same situation as what was described at the beginning of this thread. R3 steals home on a dropped third... and crosses the plate.. meanwhile, the throw from F2 is wild but F3 records the out on a "tag", rather than on the force. Same call? No run scores?

on his glove hand, is there?? If so, I've never read it. Twice in the last 3 weeks I've had coaches ask me if it was legal for the pitcher to wear a batting glove underneath his glove... I dont remember ever reading any rule prohibiting it. I think its just unusual to see. Just checking.