sthomas13100

I missed this on my rest: 5.1.1 j .....Ball becomes dead immediately when: j. an infielder intentionally drops a fair fly, fair line drive or fair bunt in flight with at least first base occupied and with less than two outs. I have never seen this applied in a game. I know intentionally dropping a line drive is a dead ball, but I did not know there was any violation to intentionally drop a fly or a bunt with first base occupied???? Am I missing something? Any insight would be appreciated.

Yes, i changed it to pull pitches I know, it seems like we have coaches teaching catcher to pull pitches(baseball included), but holding it afterward would not be tolerated around my part of the woods.

First off, I only umpire HS baseball and don't know much about softball. Watched Oklahoma State and OU this past weekend...... 1st question: Is it normal for the batter to step out of the batters box after every pitch and ask for time coming in? 2nd question: Does every catcher pull pitches and hold them? And do you say anything to them? Serious questions

Thanks for the help guys, much appreciated.

The situation I was thinking about, squeeze play is on, Batter squares to bunt, catcher comes up and runs through the bat and catches the pitch to tag R3 out. The way I read OBR, I'm enforcing catcher interference and awarding R3 home and sending BR to 1st base on the catchers balk. But it looks like R3 is getting home, and BR is staying with his at bat. But I might not be reading FED rule correctly. I might be complicating this too much!

So I read 8-1-1e 1,2: So you score the run at home if the BR is obstructed by the catcher, got it. Do you also enforce the "catchers balk"? and award BR 1st base? Like the OBR ruling.

Looking for some help on NFHS rule regarding Cather interference on R3 stealing or squeeze play. OBR 6.01 g (g) Interference With Squeeze Play or Steal of Home If, with a runner on third base and trying to score by means of a squeeze play or a steal, the catcher or any other fielder steps on, or in front of home base without possession of the ball, or touches the batter or his bat, the pitcher shall be charged with a balk, the batter shall be awarded first base on the interference and the ball is dead. I am having difficulty finding NFHS ruling regarding this same scenario, seems silent on this same situation. Any help would be appreciated!

First let me say I am not a Yankee fan, in fact I am a Mets fan. The graphic on the Twins broadcast does not actually follow the ball based on the picture above. It's a good pitch, however not a strike in MLB. I understand its a big situation, but the catcher has to do a better job receiving that pitch. Just my opinion.

1. R1 is awarded 2nd base. 1 from TOP 2. R2 is awarded home, and BR is awarded 2nd. 2 TOP (Time of Pitch)

After 6 years of umpiring, 3 clinics, 4 camps, countless pre-season scrimage work, 40-50 games per year, I was selected as a 5A/6A umpire this year. Worked District all but 1 year, regionals all but 2 years, worked 9 regional games this spring, and worked day 1 (2 games) of the 2019 5A state tournament in Oklahoma. I just want to say Thank you to everyone on this site for making me a better umpire. This site has forced me to be a better rules guy and a better at game management. What has impressed me most, guys here have reminded me that you always have room to be a better umpire, to never stop learning. Again, Thank you!

1. Time of Pitch or Time of Throw, 2 bases. 2. All runners get 2 bases from the Time of Pitch (TOP). R1 goes to 3rd, BR goes to 2nd. Example of TOT would be base hit to right field, R1 heading to 3rd base and ball goes into dead ball territory. Then you would place runners 2 bases from time of throw. 2 from TOP would be first initial throw infield by a fielder. 2 from TOT would be back end of double play or a throw from outfield. 1 from rubber if an attempted pick off, 2 if pitcher disengages. i'm sure someone will give you the rule.

....And unfortunately, in FED we have a runner at second with a 3-0 counts. Enforce the balk.

I use my Wilson memory foam pads with my mask until it warms up, then switch back to the TW. Wilson seems too soft in warmer weather and TW seem too hard in colder weather.

2 man, less than 2 outs, R1 & R2. On tag up responsibilities, PU has runner at 2nd and BU has runner at 1st base is what I have always believed to be the case. This past weekend, was told BU has the tag up at 2nd along with catch/no catch in the cone, PU would have tag up at 1st, but PU has the call at 3rd if he comes. I have looked in my FED umpires manual and can't seem to find it. I've only been umpiring for about 5 years at the HS level, please clarify. Thanks

Prayers for full recovery.

Rule set matters on this one. OBR, as long as all runners, including the BR advance one base, the balk is ignored. NFHS, balk is enforced, runners advance 1 base and it is a" no pitch". Yes, in HS we penalized the wrong party here, most guys here believe this rule should be changed in HS.

My OP was probably too wordy, USSSA which is OBR with modifications.

I might not have described it well enough, huge flat spot as I saw it had to have occurred by more than just this at bat. 7-4-1 Sit D if this occurred under Fed. Looking for the OBR with USSSA mods. But thanks for above case, not sure I've read that note before, good stuff. Thanks for the info.

Rich, understand that we don't know when it was dented, but in FED it doesn't matter as long as it is discovered before the next pitch. That was the exact argument the offensive HC made. FED rules 7-4-1 a does state exactly what the UIC said and FED 1-3-5 defines an illegal bat. I am admitting that I am not as familiar with USSSA modifications.

Had some drama yesterday, doing 13 major USSSA game. Bases loaded with 1 out, batter hits deep sac fly to center field, R3 tags up and scores and all other runner advance to tie up the game. Pitcher backing up the throw, picks up the bat and bring it to me, a huge flat spot on the bat. Confer with my partner, we call the batter out for illegal bat and return all runner TOP. I mainly do FED/HS, was not sure about my ruling, opposing team protests and it takes our UIC about 15 min to get there. He states the defensive coach can takes the result of the play OR batter is out and all runners return. I found OBR 6.03 (a) (5) and read some USSSA specific rules, USSSA was no help, poorly written. OBR reference backs my decision, but does not specifically make reference to a dented bat (obviously). Looking for some insight, any help would be appreciated.

OK, I've been persuaded. No rule support.

3-1-2 If a pitcher is replaced while his team is on defense, the substitute pitcher shall pitch to the batter then at bat, or any substitute for that batter, until such batter is put out or reaches first base, or until a third out has been made. To ensure that the requirements of this article be fulfilled, the umpire will deny any coach-defensive player conference that will violate the rule. If a pitcher is incapacitated or guilty of flagrant unsportsmanlike conduct, this rule is ignored. A player may be removed as pitcher and returned as pitcher only once per inning, provided the return as pitcher does not violate either the pitching, substitution or charged conference rule. If the pitcher, because of an injury or being incapacitated, is replaced as pitcher and the above rule is not satisfied, or if his replacement requires more warm-up throws than permitted in 6-2-2 Exception, he cannot return to the game as a pitcher. 3-1-1 also using the term batter. So, I know FED is not as clear as OBR. Could you imagine if a coach could replace a pitcher after they have warmed up, he could continue to do so over and over. A coach could even have the pitcher throw pitch 1, then have F7 throw pitch 2, then F5 throw pitch 3 and so on. I don't believe this is the intent of the rule. Poorly written, yes. But I could be persuaded.

Guys: Bottom of 5th inning, starting pitcher takes 5 warmups, batter steps into box, and the head coach requests time and wants to replace his pitcher. I stop him and tell him that his pitcher must throw to the batter. He argues a little and tells me he just has to throw one pitch. I stick with my ruling, the coach then states that if his pitcher throws one more pitch, he is not eligible to pitch the following day. Again, I tell him my ruling that he must either retire this runner or he can intentionally walk him, he ends up intentionally walking the batter. FED 3.1.1 and 3.1.2 are the basis for my ruling. I did not tell him he could claim an injury, didn't think that was my job. My question, does the pitch limits in high school in any way supersede the rules? We don't keep pitches, we are not involved in them, and we are instructed to not make any ruling regarding pitching limits. Should I have handled this situation differently?

No not me, was at the game. Too many people in my way to see in real time. I do not call at this level.