Obstruction on batter runner past 1B, which base awarded (see video)

[Micky]

Hello,

I am new to this forum. I am starting to learn the ropes as an umpire. I live in the Netherlands. We follow the MLB rules unless otherwise stated in our rules. For this question, it is the MLB rules.

https://s3.eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/static.wbsc.org/assets/cms/obstruction4.mp4

In the above video at the very end, it is stated that the runner is out. 

I don't understand. Even if you think the runner would not have made it to 2B, there is the one base minimum rule after the last legally touched base  before the obstruction happens. 6.01.h.1

If a play is being made on the obstructed runner, or if the batter-runner is obstructed before he touches first base, the ball is dead and all runners shall advance, without liability to be put out, to the bases they would have reached, in the umpire’s judgment, if there had been no obstruction. The obstructed runner shall be awarded at least one base beyond the base he had last legally touched before the obstruction.

Can somebody please explain why the runner is out in this scenario?

Thank you

 

 

 

[SH0102]

1 hour ago, Micky said:

Hello,

I am new to this forum. I am starting to learn the ropes as an umpire. I live in the Netherlands. We follow the MLB rules unless otherwise stated in our rules. For this question, it is the MLB rules.

https://s3.eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/static.wbsc.org/assets/cms/obstruction4.mp4

In the above video at the very end, it is stated that the runner is out. 

I don't understand. Even if you think the runner would not have made it to 2B, there is the one base minimum rule after the last legally touched base  before the obstruction happens. 6.01.h.1

If a play is being made on the obstructed runner, or if the batter-runner is obstructed before he touches first base, the ball is dead and all runners shall advance, without liability to be put out, to the bases they would have reached, in the umpire’s judgment, if there had been no obstruction. The obstructed runner shall be awarded at least one base beyond the base he had last legally touched before the obstruction.

Can somebody please explain why the runner is out in this scenario?

Thank you

 

 

 

You answered your own question but wrong rule set. The one base automatic award is HS rules , pro you let obstruction play out and then award (if necessary) what you think would have occurred if the obstruction hadnt happened.

If a runner is out by 40 feet and was obstructed maybe a step or two, he’s still out .

[Micky]

Hi SH0102, thank you for your answer.

I am confused, because I have copied the quote about the automatic base award from the MLB rules 2024. Downloaded from the MLB website. https://www.mlb.com/official-information 

So these are not the MLB pro rules?

 

[noumpere]

35 minutes ago, Micky said:

Hi SH0102, thank you for your answer.

I am confused, because I have copied the quote about the automatic base award from the MLB rules 2024. Downloaded from the MLB website. https://www.mlb.com/official-information 

So these are not the MLB pro rules?

 

Those are the rules, but the minimum applies ONLY when the runner is obstructed while a play is being made (or BR before first).  In the video, the OBS happened when no play was being made, so there's no minimum.  If there had been no OBS, the runner likely would have remained at first.  When he then proceeded to second, he did so at his own risk and is out.

[Micky]

I see, so the obstruction has to happen at the same time as the play (more or less probably). And in this case there is a play made on the obstructed runner, but not at the same time as the obstruction. I didn't get that out of the formulation. Thank you for clarifying!

 

[noumpere]

I think you need to understand what a play is:

No Play was being attempted WHEN the runner was obstructed.  Any play after the OBS does not matter (for this rule).

[Micky]

Thank you for the definition of a play. The 2B man tags the runner. So that is the play. But it is not at the same time as the obstruction, so the rule I quoted doesn't count. Got it. It is probably that English is not my native tongue. An obstructed runner could for me also be in the past (who was the obstructed runner? John was the obstructed runner). So I didn't think it had to be at the same time.