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Good morning,

Runners on 1B and 3B, pitcher comes set, runner from 1st breaks for 2B. Instead of stepping off rubber pitcher does the inside move and spins and throws to 2B for the out. Is this a balk? It was called a balk because they said 2B was unoccupied. I didn't think that mattered if the runner is clearly advancing, then the pitcher can make a play. I wasn't sure if the pitcher in this case can make the inside move, or does he need to disengage the rubber first. 

 

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Posted

What you describe is not a balk and the pitcher does not have to disengage. The OBR rule is 6.02(a)(4):

The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play; Rule 6.02 (a)(4) Comment: When determining whether the pitcher throws or feints a throw to an unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play, the umpire should consider whether a runner on the previous base demonstrates or otherwise creates an impression of his intent to advance to such unoccupied base.

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NFHS Rules:

ART. 4 ... Balk. If there is a runner or runners, any of the following acts by a pitcher while he is touching the pitcher’s plate is a balk:

b. failing to step with the non-pivot foot directly toward a base (occupied or unoccupied) when throwing or feinting there in an attempt to put out, or drive back a runner; or throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner;

The runner need not have started at 2nd base in your play, in order to fulfill the “attempting to put” requirement. The runner advancing from 1st to 2nd makes this allowed.

Others may chime in with other code sets.


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