Jump to content
  • 0

base running


Umpire-Empire locks topics which have not been active in the last year. The thread you are viewing hasn't been active in 2953 days so you will not be able to post. We do recommend you starting a new topic to find out what's new in the world of umpiring.

Question

Posted

when you have two runners. the lead runner is stopped at third because infielder has ball so they can no longer advance in running. the trailing runner passes second base headed to third then turns to go back to second. would that be a force out at second base? this is AA little league baseball

  • Answers 2
  • Created
  • Last Reply

Top Posters For This Question

Popular Days

Top Posters For This Question

2 answers to this question

Recommended Posts

  • 0
Posted
2 minutes ago, Guest john said:

when you have two runners. the lead runner is stopped at third because infielder has ball so they can no longer advance in running. the trailing runner passes second base headed to third then turns to go back to second. Would that be a force out at second base? this is AA little league baseball

At any level of baseball, why do you think it would be a force out?

Let's apply some common sense actions to this. No runners on. Grounder to infield, with batter-runner (BR) beating the throw to 1B. Now, he's compelled – or forced – to go to 1B by rule. Once he touches/steps on/passes 1B, he has obtained or achieved the base, and satisfied the requirements of the rule. As such, the First Baseman (F3) can stand there, on the base, ball in hand or glove, and the rules state that the BR is allowed to return directly to 1B to become R1 there. The force is, essentially, off. Keep in mind that this overrun and return is only allowed at 1B amongst the three bases. However, the principle remains – once the Runner has satisfied the rules and achieved the bag he is forced to, he has to be tagged once off of or beyond it.

Let's take this further. So now you have that Runner on 1B (R1), and there's another liner that makes the Shortstop (F6) range to go field it. R1 now is forced to run to 2B because the next BR, who just hit the ball, is, once again, forced to run to 1B. Once R1 arrives and touches 2B, he subsequently achieves or obtains 2B, does he not? If he tries to advance on his own, despite coaches and parents screaming at him not to, he has to be... what's that? Oh yeah, tagged... does he not? Because there's nothing forcing him to go anywhere beyond 2B.

Making sense so far?

So now, reread your question, and tell us why you think that once your trailing runner has touched 2B would be subject to a Force Out if he's returning to the bag he just achieved?

  • 0
Posted

This is the rule book definition of a force play:
A FORCE PLAY is a play in which a runner legally loses his right to occupy a base by reason of the batter becoming a runner.

Nothing in the situation that you describe has anything to do with this rule. The trailing runner is out only if tagged before touching 2B.


×
×
  • Create New...