An EARLY steal...

[stl_ump]

OBR

So we've got an R1 leaving real early as the pitcher is paying him no mind as he takes off for 2nd.

 

The question was asked "when is the runner considered to actually stolen the base?"

 

For instance, if he takes off and reaches second but there is a foul ball on the pitch.  When would he not need to return?  If he gets there before the release of the ball from the pitcher?  Before he starts his windup?

 

Thanks

 

[CricketChapman]

TOP.  Straight from PBUC:

"The time of pitch is defined as the moment the pitcher’s movements commit him to deliver the ball to the batter...

A runner who advances while the pitcher is in contact with the rubber is considered to occupy the base last touched at the time the pitcher initiates his actual pitching motion to the batter. The pitching motion is defined as any movement which commits the pitcher to deliver the ball to the batter."

Thus, in the "foul ball" scenario above, the runner must have actually acquired second base prior to the pitcher beginning his motion in order to remain on second base immediately following the foul.

[JaxRolo]

Agree. Once F1 starts his motion and the runner hasn't reached the base. Send him back on a foul ball.

[Jocko]

Agree. Once F1 starts his motion and the runner hasn't reached the base. Send him back on a foul ball.

lock it up