DWDIII

Have not seen but we got an email stating that this should be handled as a warning first (for the team) and then and ejection to the player after the warning.

Pregame conference question where the coach didn’t list subs? how did I miss the question ? a) start the game and tell the coach he may add substitutes as he gets time during the game (seems correct but was wrong) b) inform the coach there will be no substitutions allowed for his team in the game c) not accept the line up card the game cannot begin until the umpire has received lineup cards from both teams d) inform the head coach that as a penalty for not having his lineup card correct, he may not occupy a coaching box for the balance of the game

The guy was just looking for an answer to a question on the FED test this year. it’s B. Close the thread

So gotta be A. Right? 8-2-5 (4) on the last play of the game, an appeal can be until the umpire(s) leave the field of play No, strike that it’s B! 8-2-6 j. The appeal must be made while an umpire is still on the field of play

Did you see Manny Machado taking an inside line on his way to second? Going from the dirt and direct to 2nd to running with both feet on the infield grass and getting hit on the shoulder with the throw from the first baseman. Where’s the interference? Should have gotten two outs there.

Senor Azul again!, yep. Thanks I missed that one. Hate that the coach called it and my field ump didn’t we’ll get ‘em next time

Coach pointed out that the pitcher, while on the rubber but definitely before coming set dumped the ball into the glove or out of the glove to the hand. He vocalized that it was a balk. I was plate ump but didn’t see it. He didn’t make a big deal, but discussed btwn innings. A balk? - because the ball was removed from the hand or glove? Help me out either way please. If I would / should have seen it, should I have balked it?

Senor Azul!!! The catcher had to reach up and grab it out of his neck area and it’s one base because it was a pitch. I’m feelin’ pretty good fellas.

I was in C with R2. pitch bounced and entered the catcher’s jersey at the neck line. He dropped to his knees to block and it bounced up and into his jersey at the neckline. He reached to his neck and grabbed the ball and threw to third because the runner was attempting to advance. I had an out at third but my brain was screaming lodged ball. I discussed with my PU who had no view of the lodged ball. I ruled the runner safe due to a lodged ball. At the time I felt good about it except: should it have been two bases? (which would have led to a SH*# storm with a run scoring) and was it really “lodged”? if the catcher could grab so quickly that the throw beat the runner (he wasn’t stealing, just trying to advance on a pitch in the dirt). Both teams were fine with my ruling and we moved on, the defensive head coach said “I thought it was rattling around in there” and I said he had to pull it out of his shirt and he turned and walked away (but if I had (probably correctly) awarded home that discussion would have been way longer)) thoughts? please…(btw one piece mask - high school varsity, first game of the year)

f the foul ball was caught obviously they have to tag before they advance if it is simply foul it is a dead ball and per 5.06(c)(5) The umpire-in-chief shall not put the ball in play until all runners have retouched their bases; nothing happens until the ball is put back in play so yes they must retouch

Squeeze play, R3 is coming hard, batter misses bunt. Catcher decides to go around batter and misses tag. Safe. DHC is mad wants obstruction (wrong, coach). The batter did not move after missing the bunt. He squared to bunt and missed it then pulled the bat back and got small. I don't think the batter did anything wrong. I told the coach that if the batter moved then he might have ran into the catcher. The coach said that then you have obstruction too (yeah, yeah - I'm not going to correct his verbiage, there is a bigger issue here). The way I see it was if the catcher would have dove out at the front corner of the plate then He's probably got an out but by going around......that was his choice and it didn't work out for him. Thoughts? I'll be over there in the rule book so I can site on my game report because I'm going to need one after that game.

btw - Fed took calling "time" first out of their mechanics two years ago, so just call "balk" then you can say "time" if you need to. (Added benefit - This may save you from killing a play when you are working OBR)

Also If he beat the ball and missed the bag he's safe until they appeal the missed based which wasn't done. But again, that dude is working 8 yo ball and is prolly in his first year and it's early in the season. You'll get the safe call eventually as the umps (and players) get more experienced

What's the point of the foul tip signal?

Cause your looking in a mirror

I don't see the problem with starting in the set in OBR - the rule reads that he "may elect" to use "the stretch" - the pitcher in the OP simply did not elect to do so - he is set immediately- if he is at a couple stop and doesn't do anything illegal then I have no problem.

Thanks, I called the balk to send in the winning run in a 0-0 game and I was kinda second guessing myself the next day - thanks for the help

is it a balk when the pitcher hesitates before coming set? Hands at side, pitcher starts to come set, hands almost touch then resets to start again. Looks very weird, a hesitation always looks odd but is that a balk? He never came set, he discontinued the movement before

OBR 6.02c - within the 18 ft circle if pitcher goes to mouth without wiping It off it is a warning first then a ball. Not a balk, just add a ball if it happens again after the warning

No because the way it reads is that all other runner advance because of the walk - so you would have to note at the time of the balk that the situation was ball 3 and the runners are are in forcible position. So if it wa just R3, he would get home and the pitch wouldn't count (unless the pitch was a ball and got past the catcher and R3 advanced home, then the batter would be awarded the base on balls) But again - never considered this until lat night.

Doing some reading tonight and I came across something I've never considered, awarding a base on balls instead of enforcing a balk. OBR 6.02a (copied directly) PENALTY: The ball is dead, and each runner shall advance one base without liability to be put out, unless the batter reaches first on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, in which case the play proceeds without reference to the balk. I'm usually not concerned with the location of the pitch after a balk is called but I guess I should be if there are 3 balls on the batter. Have you you ever done that?, seen that?

So I was flipping through the channels on a rainy night and there was the original Bad News Bears. So when the coach came out and slapped his kid, that was his second visit so shouldn't he have had to remove the pitcher?

The pitch hit the batter - send the runner back to third unless he was forced home by the award of first for the batter.

Even if he acknowledged the signs it's not a balk. Illegal, but not a balk.

When I'm doing a game with one warning before calling the balk I understand that it's about the pitcher learning but why penalize the offence? I let the hit stand or let the kid who stole a base stay there and then call time, go talk to the pitcher, tell him what he did wrong, signal to his coach what the infraction was and that he just used his warning. Then play on calling the balk the next time. You can usually find the warning even before a play if you look for it. I don't like to make a big deal about, I walk out, quietly discuss while going through the motions (no stop, shoulder turn, whatever) the coach gets that I'm explaining what was wrong and as I head back I make eye contact with the coach and signal one, that's the warning , play ball.