Runner Hit By Batted Ball?

[nicshow]

I need some help on the rule about a batted ball being dead when hitting a baserunner. The wording says that the ball is dead unless it  2. touches a runner after passing through or by an infielder and another infielder could have made a play on the ball,

NFHS (2015-11-04). 2016 NFHS Baseball Rules Book (Kindle Locations 683-684). NFHS. Kindle Edition. 

Through or by an infielder...?

Does that mean that it can pass by 15 feet to the right of the first baseman who is playing in, hit the runner and not be dead? Or is it only not dead if it passes by the 1st baseman who might have a chance to play on the ball?

I hope I'm asking that clearly.

[Replacematt]

Under NFHS, think of a string connecting all of the infielders. If the ball has passed beyond that string, it has passed an infielder for the purposes of this rule (string theory.) 

OBR is different. It has to pass within the area in which an infielder could play it (about a step and a reach in all directions.) So, if the ball goes through that area in the vicinity of a fielder, it has passed an infielder for the purposes of this rule (bubble theory.)

[nicshow]

Interesting and helpful. Thank you.

The string is connected to the adjacent fielder and not parallel to the basepath? If it's connected to the 2nd baseman who is playing deep, the batted ball hitting the runner could still be a dead ball?

[Rich Ives]

19 minutes ago, nicshow said:

Interesting and helpful. Thank you.

The string is connected to the adjacent fielder and not parallel to the basepath? If it's connected to the 2nd baseman who is playing deep, the batted ball hitting the runner could still be a dead ball?

 

Yes        .

[maven]

32 minutes ago, nicshow said:

Interesting and helpful. Thank you.

The string is connected to the adjacent fielder and not parallel to the basepath? If it's connected to the 2nd baseman who is playing deep, the batted ball hitting the runner could still be a dead ball?

Dead, yes, because it's INT and an out (possibly 2).

[nicshow]

2 outs if intentional?

[maven]

1 hour ago, nicshow said:

2 outs if intentional?

Differs per code. Since you've asked about FED, the standard is if a double play is "possible." This standard is open to wide interpretation: the one I recommend is "if a double play was likely to be attempted and close, absent the INT." All benefit of the doubt to the defense. 8-4-2g, 8.4.2 COMMENT

Note that intent (to break up 2) is not required for FED.