soupcan

I guess my question was more of when is quick pitch called and when does it just seem odd. My determination was that the batter (and myself) were caught off guard by the action so I called it a quick pitch. Does that seem correct?

What is the correct protocol for a quick pitch? I called one the other night as the pitcher was hurrying through his windup to catch the batter off balance. I thought this was a POE a few years ago as it was deemed "dangerous and discouraged". Thoughts or experiences?

Thanks zoops, It is as if you were waiting for the question to be posted.

R1 on first, F1 steps off the pitcher's plate and fakes a throw to first. F3 fakes a tag on R1 returning to first? How would you rule it? OBS? What award?

Incorrect. Being hit by a batted ball is also listed in 8-4-2-g as an example of INT and explicitly links 8-4-2-g with 8-4-2-k: The instruction to call a DP appears IMMEDIATELY AFTER this very clause. I am not inventing the connection. 8.4.2 COMMENT provides clear guidance for calling a DP that is different from OBR. I'm with Maven.

I agree that this would not be a DP in MiLB, but I think the discussion here is referring to FED. What if the runner willfully kicked the ball, does the situation change? I don't think the FED distiguishes between intent and no intent, just that a DP could have been executed. Why should the defense be penalized for an infraction by the offense?

If he did something intentional then I have interference.

Reading the definition of throw here is important. The throw is complete and now it is a thrown ball, which needs intent.

Anyone care to offer an explanation as to why this is not offensive interference (without the condescension)?

Yes -- that's why I always get an out when the offense tries the old "walk-off" play. And when the defense fakes the throw to second on the R1-R3 steal? That's clearly OBS. La me. Well, if a coach were sent to the dugout with a rulebook assignment and came back with this, what would be your explanation?

Offensive interference? "an act... which... confuses any fielder attempting to make a play."?

That is the "I am Dana Demuth, and I can do whatever mechanic I want" mechanic. The guy is a stud.

I am guessing Type A was called, the play was called dead and that is why everyone quit playing.

Anyone else have Type A here? I thought this was discussed on another post as the most missed obstruction call there is.

My opinion was that F3 was not making a play and that F4 was the protected fielder. I wanted to award the OBS but the BU was our association head and had done many big tournaments in the state. I was new to the area and didn't have the balls to step on his toes. I had done a lot of games and had a lot of training, but I was young. He said, "let's have a do over", AND I LET IT HAPPEN! I have been pissed about it for the last 15 years. Go ahead and bash away but I just wanted to verify that I had it right even though I let him walk on me.

I guess I should add that when I went out to talk to the BU. He said "I think that is INT on R1".

This story is from a while ago, but it has bothered me since it happened and I am wondering how you guys would have handled this. OBR legion league. I was the PU with a runner on 1st and one or no outs. R1 breaks for 2nd on the pitch and there is a popup between 1st and 2nd. I saw the popup and saw F4 prepare for the catch and started to watch the runner as the catch was going to the BU call. On his return to 1st, R1 collides with F3 and I call OBS and let play continue. The ball then drops between F4 and F3 (closer to F4) and everyone stops. After a few seconds, the BU calls time. What would you do next?

If at all possible, kill it. If that is not an option, let the pitcher proceed and then make a ruling after play has stopped. My question is if you issue a warning, is that for just that pitcher or is it a warning that applies to all pitchers for that team for the remainder of the game?

Because with R1 only throwing to a fielder is considered to be throwing to an unoccupied base. Tim. Is there a rule that covers this? What if he throws to the left fielder? Yes. 8.05D. Balk if he throws to F7. With R1 only and not attempting to advance, the only base a pitcher can throw to from the rubber is first base. Tim. I guess my question is that if 8.05d covers throwing to an unoccupied base, what is the rule that states throwing a fielder is considered an unoccupied base. Also, 8.02c make no mention of being in contact with the pitcher's plate, so wouldn't this be covered better under 8.02c? I guess if I have an argument on this one and use the umpire-empire message board as the source of my ruling, it may not go over very well.

Because with R1 only throwing to a fielder is considered to be throwing to an unoccupied base. Tim. Is there a rule that covers this? What if he throws to the left fielder?

If you mean R1 only and he's not stealing, then no, F1 may not step and throw to F6 without it being a balk. Doing so would violate 8.05(d), the penalty for which is a balk. What if he is not throwing to a base and is only throwing the position. I think this is covered by 8.02© On the rubber: Balk - 8.05d Off the rubber: Warning for delay (and removed on the second one) - 8.02c If he is not throwing to a base, how is it a violation of 8.05d?

If you mean R1 only and he's not stealing, then no, F1 may not step and throw to F6 without it being a balk. Doing so would violate 8.05(d), the penalty for which is a balk. What if he is not throwing to a base and is only throwing the position. I think this is covered by 8.02©

It must meet one of two requirements: 1. Throw must be to the base, OR 2. The umpire judges that they are making a play on the runner In your scenario, neither applies, so it's a balk. I disagree, with a runner on first, the pitcher can throw to F6 without a balk and that does not meet those requirements. Are you purposely being obtuse? He clearly stated that F1 threw to F3, which is what I was addressing. Throwing to F6 (or F4) with R2 was covered earlier in the thread. I guess I missed that this was specific to first base.

It must meet one of two requirements: 1. Throw must be to the base, OR 2. The umpire judges that they are making a play on the runner In your scenario, neither applies, so it's a balk. I disagree, with a runner on first, the pitcher can throw to F6 without a balk and that does not meet those requirements.