Force play vs winning run

[Guest Sunduck]

Bottom of the 9th tie game, 2 outs, bases loaded.

Batter hits a clean base hit to the outfield, batter reaches first, runner on first reaches second, runner on 3rd reaches home but the runner on second never touches 3rd.

Fielding team throws the ball to 3rd well after all runners have reached their bases except the runner from 2nd. (runner on 2nd saw the runner on 3rd reach home safely & started walking off thinking the game was over)

Does the run score?

What should be the call?

[lawump]

No run may score on a play in which the third out is recorded and that third out is (a) a force out or (b) against the batter runner before he reaches first base.

In your play, was R2 (the runner on second) forced to advance to third base?  The answer, of course, is yes.  The out against R2 at third base is a force out.  No run may score on a play in which the third out is recorded and that third out is a force out.

"Does the run score?"  Answer:  No.

"What should be the call?"  Answer:  The base umpire should say, "he's out".  The teams then move on to the 10th inning still tied. 

This is a Merkle's Boner play.  https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Merkle's_Boner

[Guest Thanks]

Lawump, Thank you for the answer & also for the link great info.