Fair ball hits BR

[baseballfan]

Can anyone help me out with how to interpret 6.05 (g)? What's causing my confusion is the link below. Specifically, I am talking about the 2 pictures at the bottom of the page and the explanation to the sides of them. 

 

http://www.baseball-rules.com/batterbox.htm

 

When I read the rule with its cross reference to 6.03, I interpret it to mean that if the BR has one foot out of the batter's box, he is no longer in legal position in the batter's box. Therefore, if he gets hit with the ball in fair territory with one foot out of the box and one foot on the ground in the box, he should still be out. But the website says he is fine. Thoughts???

[Specks]

When hit with a batted ball, if the B/R is enitely out of the box he is out. Entirely out of the box means no foot touching the ground inside the batters box. If he's touched with a batted ball and one foot is still in the box, even his heel touching the chalk of the box it's a foul.  The photos are showing 3 different situations: pre-pitch, at contact and post contact.

[basejester]

I can't get from the rule to the website's interpretation.

 

6.03 The batter’s legal position shall be with both feet within the batter’s box.

 

(g) His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder. If the batter is in a legal position
in the batter’s box, see Rule 6.03, and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no
intention to interfere with the course of the ball, a batted ball that strikes the batter
or his bat shall be ruled a foul ball;

[afaber12]

In these cases, assume the batter has not yet started to move towards first base after hitting the ball, when the ball touches him.

• If the batter is wholly within the box when he hits the ball, he can't be out for batting out of the box (obviously), nor can he be out if the batted ball touches him - assuming there was no intent to make contact with the batted ball.
• If the batter has one foot (or both, which would be unusual) partially out of the box, he still can't be out for batting out of the box, but he is out if the batted ball touches him.
• If the batter has one foot (or both) wholly out of the box, he's out for batting out of the box as soon as he hits the ball.

I think "Jim's Rules of Baseball Answered" have got this one wrong.

[Rich Ives]

The interpretation was changed and clarified and put into rule this year. In OBR it is as basejester posted.

 

But LL hasn't changed yet so if he's partially in the box when hit by the batted ball it's foul. This was the old interp in OBR.

 

So depending on which rules apply and/or the date on the book you are reading, you may get the call right or wrong.

[noumpere]

In these cases, assume the batter has not yet started to move towards first base after hitting the ball, when the ball touches him.

• If the batter is wholly within the box when he hits the ball, he can't be out for batting out of the box (obviously), nor can he be out if the batted ball touches him - assuming there was no intent to make contact with the batted ball.
• If the batter has one foot (or both, which would be unusual) partially out of the box, he still can't be out for batting out of the box, but he is out if the batted ball touches him.
• If the batter has one foot (or both) wholly out of the box, he's out for batting out of the box as soon as he hits the ball.

I think "Jim's Rules of Baseball Answered" have got this one wrong.

Your points 2 and three are wrong.  Rich has it right that the rule has changed or been clarified since the pictures were posted.  Pro and HS rules now agree on this.