Dr. Blue

Thanks for sharing this! The only thing this coach said was "I am appealing" without any actions made by the defense. Would you consider this an "attempt" at an appeal and then walk them through how to actually make a proper appeal?

Hey All! Batter hits solo homerun but misses second base. Once the player entered his own dugout, the opposing coach yells "he missed second base, blue". I yell back "then appeal". The coach says he is appealing, clearly having no knowledge on how to properly execute a formal appeal. After some awkward silence, the coach asks me to how to appeal the call. What would you do? Would you walk this coach and team through the process of waiting until the ball is live, having the pitcher step off the rubber, and throw the ball to second base? Or would that cross the boundaries of being an non-biased individual, since you are essentially helping the team play the game? I recognize the answer to this question may also depend on the level of play, but was wondering what your thoughts are on where to draw the line in a situation like this?

Richvee has it absolutely correct here. Unless you specifically talk about this situation pregame (which I wouldn't), you need to make your own call as a BU based on what you see. If coach comes out to complain and you aren't 100% sure with your call, then fine, grab the PU and discuss.

Completely agree here! Not my job to visibly affirm or deny partner's call!

Hey All! What do you do for a living? Is umpiring your full-time or part-time job? What's your reason for umpiring? How long have you been an umpire for? Favorite and least favorite part about umpiring? Best moment of umpiring/Cool story to share?

Scenario: Game Tied 1-1, Bottom of 9th, Bases Loaded, 2-Outs. Pitcher walks the batter and the batter immediately celebrates the runner from 3rd coming home. The batter never heads towards first base and leaves the field. None of the other runners (the initial runners on first and second) touch their next base since they also went to celebrate the runner from third base touching home plate. Question: Is the game over?

Agreed! The play from yesterday made me go back and look at the semantics of the rule. I never considered that a settled ground ball between home and either first or third may be viewed differently than a ground ball that is still in motion and touched by a player between home and either first or third.

Hello All, As many of you are aware, this "controversial" fair-foul call came up during one of the yesterday's games. I just wanted to take some time to go over 3 scenarios to double-check my interpretations: For reference: A FAIR BALL is a batted ball that settles on fair ground between home and first base, or between home and third base, or that is on or over fair territory when bounding to the outfield past first or third base, or that touches first, second or third base, or that first falls on fair territory on or beyond first base or third base, or that, while on or over fair territory touches the person of an umpire or player, or that, while over fair territory, passes out of the playing field in flight. Scenario #1: A ball stops rolling between home and third base. The portion of the ball that is in contact with the ground is over foul territory, but a portion of the ball is over the chalk. Answer: Foul ball. "A FAIR BALL is a batted ball that settles ON fair ground between home and first base, or between home and third base." Scenario #2: A fly ball is hit to the outfield down the third baseline and makes contact with the ground in foul territory, but at the moment of contact, a portion of the ball is over the chalk. Ruling: Foul ball. "A FAIR BALL is a batted ball that first falls on fair territory ON or beyond first base or third base." Scenario #3: A ground ball is rolling between home and third base. A player touches the ball when ball is in contact with the ground in foul territory, but a portion of the ball is over the chalk. Ruling: Fair ball. "A FAIR BALL is a batted ball that while ON OR OVER fair territory touches the person of an umpire or player." So if we assumed that the video is representative of Scenario #3, would it be fair to say (no pun intended) that if the ball settled on its own in the exact same spot that the player touched the ball in the video that the ball would be foul instead of fair?

Agreed. Thank you!

Both F4 on foul line half way to home expecting bunt, F5 near 3rd base, F6 down left field line. Basically all three fielders in a straight line down the left foul line.

I think I was just wondering if both sentences had to be true... or does the first one takes priority? For example, if an infielder could have ordinarily fielded a ball, but in the umpires judgement, the ball could not have been as easily handled by an infielder as the outfielder... would IFF apply? I presume the answer is yes.

I would say the infielders could have gotten to it, but not with ordinary effort. Also, I wouldn't say the same standard applies to IFF... where the determination of "infielder" is made at the time of the pitch and the intentionally dropped rule refers to an outfielder that has ran into the infield (or close enough to turn a double play).

Rule 2.00 (Infield Fly) Comment: On the infield fly rule the umpire is to rule whether the ball could ordinarily have been handled by an infielder-not by some arbitrary limitation such as the grass, or the base lines. The umpire must rule also that a ball is an infield fly, even if handled by an outfielder, if, in the umpire's judgment, the ball could have been as easily handled by an infielder. Should an infield fly be called in a scenario where an infielder could ordinarily handle the ball but an outfielder has the easier play?

Rule 5.09(a)(12): When an infielder deliberately drops a fair ball or a line drive to set up a double play situation, runners may safely return to the bases they occupied at the time of the pitch. The same application shall be made if an outfielder has come so close to the infield to set up a double play situation if he intentionally drops the ball.

Runners on 1st and 2nd w/1 out. All infielders shifted to left side of field (except first baseman who is near the 1st base bag). Batter hits fly ball just to right of the second base bag. CF started in shallow CF, but not shallow enough to be considered an infielder for the purposes of the IF Rule. He sprints in, intentionally drops the ball (making no contact with the ball prior to it dropping) which lands 2 feet to the right of second base, and attempts to turn 2. Ordinarily, I'd call for the infield fly, but given the shift, no infielder would have had an equal or easier opportunity to catch the fly ball compared to the CF. Because I deemed the IF Rule not applicable in this scenario, I called "TIME", ruled the ball dead, the batter out, and returned the runners to their original base. Was this the right call?... or does the outfielder have to make contact before intentionally dropping the ball like an infielder does for an intentionally dropped line drive for this rule to apply?