ikeequa

@James Then why is a check swing called a strike if the bat crosses the plate? There the batter is also not trying to hit the ball.

I've run across something I've never heard before, and need your expert opinion. Is it possible to square around to bunt, not pull the bat back and get a ball called? Here's the exact situation as I heard it: The batter squares to bunt and holds his bat OVER the plate belt high. The pitch comes in and is caught by the catcher, but the umpire calls ball because the pitch was too high and out of the strike zone. Supposedly the umpire didn't call a strike because the batter didn't try to make contact with the ball even though he never pulled the bat back. I always thought if your bat was over the plate when the pitch came in, it was a strike. A check swing is also not an attempt to hit the ball, but if your bat crosses the plate you're getting the strike. Did I miss a rules change here? Thanks for any help.

Isn't it more important to get the call right? I'm sure Tim Welke would have liked some help.

I had a situation this year as coach when the first baseman clearly had his foot 2-3 inches away from the bag. The Field ump had no way to see it, but it was clearly visible for the plate ump. We even have a nice photo of it. What is the proper procedure in this case? For clarification, If I am the plate ump and see that F3 is off the bag, do I call it immediately to help the field ump and prevent a discussion, or do I wait for the argument to ensue and the field ump to come to me? What do I do when the coach comes over and asks me if I saw it? Thanks.

But what happens when the BR collides with the pitcher causing the pitcher to touch the ball in fair territory? If the pitcher is standing there just watching the ball and has no intention of making a play, then he needs to get out of the way.

As someone who used to pitch in Babe Ruth ball and am now an Umpire, I can truly say that I hated it when the game was called from behind the mound. Never, ever did I get a good strike zone. But hey, If Blue wants it, blue can have it. Just please stay away from my games.

Wild, I stood next to the foul line and pointed fair until the batter had reached first. Don't know what else I could have done. If I had let him bat again, then we have an improper batter. If I see it right, we would have had an out for abandonment and then an improper batter that not even the scorer would have noticed without asking. The defense could have theoretically gone for an intentional walk and then appealed for an easy 2 outs. I wasn't going to let him bat. I refused to get into position. I just prayed that the catcher would place the tag. My biggest problem was that it was my first or second year and wasn't sure what to do. I knew if he had walked back to the dugout he was out, but didn't what to do when he got back in the box.

These were adults, I immediately pointed fair until the runner had reached first just to let the catcher know that I saw the ball hit his glove. The BU called safe loud and clear. Since we're not supposed to yell FAIR for fear of confusion, I don't know what else we could have done.

No. I stood to the side of the plate and watched what everyone was doing. The batter got into the batter's box and I guess my look of bewilderment convinced the catcher to apply a tag.

Why would R1 be declared out? He didn't benefit from the coach being in the way.

But like someone said in my thread, he left the bases. Doesn't thank make him out under rule 7.08? If yes, then wouldn't the offense simply send the proper batter up to the plate with an 0-1 count?

I don't know what they were thinking, there was a play at first and the BU called him safe. For some reason the first base coach told his batter it was a foul ball. As soon as I said the ball hit the catcher's glove, the coaches went back to their dugouts. I just want to make sure that I get it right in the future.

Thanks for the info. I saw exactly what hat happened. It was an adult game and the guy had a bloody lip, not teeth lost. After he got hit he just sat there. If you stop play immediately, aren't you then obliged to place the runners where you think they would have landed?

Hi, Me again. I was behind the plate. Batter hits a pop-up just in front of the plate. Catcher moves forward and ball ever so slightly hits glove and spins foul. I point fair ball and Batter Runner is safe at first. However, he thinks it's a foul ball and runs back to the plate, picks up his bat and gets in batter's box. I just stand around waiting for something to happen until the catcher realizes decides to tag the batter/batter runner at which time I call out. What is the proper procedure in such a situation? Do I just get behind the plate and wait for the pitch and in doing so creating an improper batter, or did I get it right? Thanks.

How am I supposed to rule when a non-life threatening injury occurs during a play? The situation I had was bases loaded 1 out. Ball hit to SS. The ball took a nasty bounce and hit the SS in the face. He just rolled over and all the field players ran over to see what happened. In the mean time, the runner form second ran home at which point I called time. Should I have called time as soon as everyone reached their next base or let play continue until a defender decides to pick up the ball and stop any further advance?

So basically, the runner should take off because one way or another he gets the next base?

This is my own stupid curiosity here: But in this case does R3 advance because of the walk? In this case R3 actually scores because of the wild pitch, he is not forced due to the actions of the batter forcing him. I'm not objecting to your decision, just trying to learn as much as I can. I read someplace that runners can never advance on the final pitch to an improper batter. I'll go with the official interpretation, but it seems counter to the rules. Btw. thanks for your detailed answer to my dilemma.

In MLB rules, is the TOP when the pitcher begins his motion, or when the ball leaves his hand?

I would completely agree. Except for the balk. Runners don't advance on HBP, they advance on the balk. The HBP, IMO, doesn't nullify the balk. Fed has this one right. Kill it on the balk. Yup, the Fed rules are much easier in this situation. Let's petition MLB to adopt it.

Because in this case there is no Balk. As soon as the HBP occurs and all runners advance one base, it nullifies the balk. (Rule 8.05 PENALTY: The ball is dead, and each runner shall advance one base without liability to be put out, unless the batter reaches first on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, in which case the play proceeds without reference to the balk.) The balk and HBP occurred on the same play/pitch. In this case everyone (including the Batter) advanced because of the HBP and therefore, there is no balk. The appeal then occurs after the play is completed and before the next play. If we say that everyone advanced on the Balk, then there was no HBP and the improper batter is still up.

Is it possible to grant a Balk and HBP on a single play? If the HBP negates the balk because the batter and all runners advanced one base, doesn't this mean that the Balk never occurred? If that is the case, how can it be applied retroactively? Like Grayhawk said, rule 6.07 (2b) is clear: nullify any advance or score made because of a ball batted by the improper batter or because of the improper batter’s advance to first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter or otherwise. NOTE: If a runner advances, while the improper batter is at bat, on a stolen base, balk, wild pitch or passed ball, such advance is legal. Does this note apply to all pitches before the batters action or the final pitch of his at bat? In other words, are runners allowed to advance on the final pitch to an improper batter? I read someplace that runners are not allowed to advance on the final pitch. If this is true, it has to be 1 out, bases loaded. If as Rich says, the BR did not reach 1B safely, is there then no HBP and the improper batter still at bat?

Jack Morris. He was one of the big-time clutch pitchers. World series titles with 2 teams. 1-0 10-inning complete game 7. 175 complete games. 2500 Ks. Can't believe he's not in already.

apparently, the discussion from Germany is now here with the same different stances. This is what I feared, but I am extremely grateful for the level of information here. No matter I I look at it, I still come up with the same answer: 1 out, bases loaded. I really want to understand it if this is wrong.

That is what I have done. But for some reason they always bring up the balk. That is also what someone here posted on the "Ask the Umpire" board. Depending on which umpire you ask, you get a different answer. I am trying to figure out if it is an interpretation of the rules, or if there is a specific rule that covers this. 6.07b is very clear.

Nice and detailed, thanks. Just one simple question: If I ignored the balk before, why do I suddenly apply it? Because if I apply it, wouldn't that negate the HBP and put the improper batter at the plate who can then simply be replaced? I'm just trying to understand the reasoning. Which rule says to do this, or is in simply an interpretation of the rules?