oswalmar

I am from Venezuela and the umpires who made the call are not members of this forum. Regarding the comment of Rich Ives, I think this is not an appeal play, is a continuos play. Probably I did not know to explain the situation correctly. The Runner went to second before the pitcher had compromised to pitch to home. Then when the fly is caught, he returned at 1B, not at 2B, then the throw goes to first base, which is tagged. My questions are: Is it Out? It should not be touched the runner? Reactivates the runner's situation according the Rule 7.08 (e) says?

Because from the moment the BR was made Out disappears forced play situation. Furthermore, while the runner returned erroneously to first base, after he had won the second, should not be out tagging on the base, but touching him. It is my opinion. Do you think?

I want to know you opinion about it and standardize criteria : R1, 1 Out. Situation: The pitcher is in Set position, the R1 tries steals 2B (reaching 2B) while the pitcher still in set position (Watch out! pitcher never detaches), then he pitched the ball, batter connect a fly to CF, CF threw to first base because the runner returned to that base. The 1B fielder tag that base and the umpire's call out. Is the call right? Please support, if possible, your answer citing baseball rule point or umpire manual. Thanks.

Thank you again to Rich Ives and sdix00 for its vast explanations. Clearest ... Impossible! I hope to continue counting with your support in doubts arising in our profession complex and fascinating...

Thanks sdix00, as I mentioned, I wanted is to have stronger argument to explain them. Since the first response was clear to me the situation of force play. I appreciate that...

Hi, some colleages here in Venezuela say that is a not forced play, because the BR was out and he stay back of 1st base's runner. How I can explain it of convincent way?

Thanks, I'll remember for next time. And I think if I am a member of the Forum. My nickname is Oswalmar since 2009. But I did not understand his answer. The run is valid or not? No, the run is not valid. Since the third out occured as a result of a force play (the runner from 1st never legally obtained second) no runs may score. Thanks, again. Regards

Thanks, I'll remember for next time. And I think if I am a member of the Forum. My nickname is Oswalmar since 2009. But I did not understand his answer. The run is valid or not?

Hi! There is a situation I want to talk with you: Runners on 1st. and 2nd. base, 1 Out. The Batter hit to CF, and both runners scored. The Batter-Runner is made out trying to get 2nd. base (2 outs). The 1st’s runner is made out in appeal play, because he failed tag 2nd. base (3 outs). Question: Are there run? Greetings.