Here's the situation from my 14u game under Fed rules today:
R1 leading off, no other runners.
F1 comes set, lifts his foot, and spins around like he's attempting a pickoff move to 2nd base.
F1 does not throw the ball, then feints a throw to 1st base and R1 goes back in safely.
In the moment, I couldn't quite remember the exact rule on this. I called a balk because 2nd base was unoccupied and R1 was not stealing. No argument from anyone on the field at the time.
After the game, I found the exact rule with a caveat I had forgotten about:
NFHS rule 6-2-4b states the following is a balk, "throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner."
The part in bold has me wondering if my balk call was correct in this situation. No throw was made, so there was no attempt to put out the runner. However, the pump fake to 1st did drive back the runner.
My question is therefore two-fold:
1. Do you have a balk in this situation?
2. Would your call be any different if he actually threw the ball to 1st base after attempting a pickoff to an unoccupied base?
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Thank you fellow umpires!