Hello fellow Umps. Just a quick clarification for a rule I can't find in the books. Ok this is at the high school jr and sr. 0 outs runner on 1st. Drop 3rd strike BR takes off toward 1st. (I'm the FU) I call the BR out. The PU allows the BR to advance to first saying the R1 was stealing on the pitch. (Which is true) therefore 1st base wasn't occupied at the time of the dropped pitch. I consider 1st to still be occupied for this play. If there is any rule that can back up my claim I'd like to see it. I just can't find one. Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk