Runner on first. Batter hits slow chopper to short. SS bobbles ball, looks to second, sees no play, throws to first... runner is already a few feet past the bag when throw gets there and is clearly safe. Even if there was no bobble, the runner had high likelihood of being safe at second since he was running on the pitch and is fast.
I asked a spectator who is one of the best umpires I know and he said he would score it as a hit... but as I go over the rules, I am, wondering if that was correct. Did I score this correctly? With no bobble he might have thrown to second... and out or safe, it would have been a fielder's choice then. But he did not throw to second... so is it a hit, as a judgement call that the runner would have been safe at first due to the choice of looking to second and not throwing there? Or would you always assume the bobble caused the loss of play at second and later throw to first so score as error regardless of any other timing judgement calls? Is there a clear answer above, or does judgement come in anywhere?
I appreciate any feedback!
