NWO Ump

Wanted confirmation on my interpretation here...FED rules. R3, 1 out. Fly ball to F8. R3 scores but left early on the tag. Defense goes for a live ball appeal. In doing so, the ball is thrown into dead ball territory. Knowing what the defense was appealing and after touching home, R3 heads back to 3B to retouch and then heads back to touch home again. Questions are 1) Can the defense still appeal leaving the base early and 2) Is R3 permitted to to go back and retouch 3B? My contention is the defense does not lose the ability to appeal because I can't find anything that prohibits it. And R3 cannot go back and retouch 3B due to 8-2-6d: "A runner may not return to touch a missed base or one left too soon on a caught fly ball if: 1)he has reached a base beyond the base missed or left too soon and the ball becomes dead" Therefore, the defense would win a dead-ball appeal as R3 is unable to retouch. Would I be correct in my interpretion?

Video creator actually said it was FED rules in the video. And yes, arguing with people on the internet is a fail. I'm asking for my own information. I am pretty confident the entire sequence is legal from the camera view we are provided. I was just looking for some confirmation from those who know more than myself. And if I missed something, I was hoping for a little help.

So another video getting a lot of discussion on YT. I've been adament this is legal and have provided rules to back up my postion. FED rules, you are permitted to feint to 3B. Pitcher has stepped directly towards 3B and disenged the rubber and then threw to 2B. Is there something in the rulebook I'm missing that would make this illegal?

Thanks guys for the responses. My thought also was that it was lega, but as Maven said (and was correct), it was a little awkward. So that's why I was asking.

Was doing some pre-season work with local HS team tonight. Had a pitcher throwing from the windup in which he would not move his non-pivot foot. Instead, with both feet on the rubber, his first move would be lifting his pivot foot and placing it parallel to the rubber and continuing his motion. I'm trying determine if this is legal. I have not been able to find anything in the FED rules indicating that the first move needs to be the non-pivot foot. I'm trying to determine if 6.1.2 "During delivery, he may lift his non-pivot foot in a step forward, a step sideways, or in a step backward and a step forward, but he shall not otherwise lift either foot" is indicating this.

Read a situation online that some of you may have seen and has gotten a lot of discussion and has led to about a 50/50 split in interpretation. I also have not seen it posted here yet. Bases loaded, 1 out. B4 sends a ball to the right field corner. R3 and R2 score. R1 is thrown out at the plate. BR is ruled out at 1st on appeal for missing the base. How many runs score? EDIT: Forgot to add...FED rules if it matters.

Thank you. I did make the change. That was natural habit typing error.

Just wondering if anyone can confirm a ruling on this situation: R3, R1 and two outs. B3 hits grounder up the middle. F6 gloves the ball and attempts to tag the sliding R1 instead of tagging the base. The tag is missed as R1 slides past the base without touching it. As R1 scrambles back to 2nd base, F6 tags him. However R3 scores before the tag was applied to R1 for the 3rd out. Curious on the ruling. My ruling is he passed the base and is “assumed” to have touched it and is called out on the tag and the run counts. Defense would need to appeal the missed base and at that point, call overturned, 3rd out is was a force and then the run would be taken off the board. Is my interpretation of this accurate? I compare it to R1 rounding 2nd, getting 1/3 the way to 3rd, and retreating only to be tagged out at 2nd on the retreat. Would I be making an incorrect ruling?