SavoyBG

Now that I assume you have actually read the post, do you still agree that it is not an out?

Of course it's the umpire's fault. The plate guy should have fixed the mistake right away when the base guy called the runner out.

Well, according to the guys who matter in this case, the interpreters who I deal with here in NJ, I made the correct call. It's not like any of you will ever have this play!

Apparently you still have not read the original post. Here: Two outs no one on. Very windy day. High popup on the 1B line, the 1Bman is trying to get under it like 12 feet foul. The batter-runner is at 1B already, standing on the base, as the ball is coming down. The wind blows the ball back fair at the last second, and the fair ball hits the batter-runner on the foot in fair territory as he is standing on the base. The 1Bman is like 8-10 feet away in foul territory having already missed his chance to catch the ball. No other fielder was near the batter-runner with any chance to make a play. I did not call the batter-runner out because there was nobody near him with a chance to catch the ball, and there was no play for anybody to throw him out at first because he was already at first. But I know it may have been the wrong call. The batter-runner may have to be called out no matter what. The interpreters here in NJ agreed with my call, including the state interpreter, Craig Yetman. The NCAA rulebook states that if a fair ball hits the batter-runner in fair territory before the ball touches a fielder that the batter-runner is out, so I assume he'd be out under those rules. Not sure about the pro ruling.

What does OBR stand for?

I have it myself on a DVD. A friend used to make up a DVD after each MLB season of crazy plays. Mondesi was running with the pitch and was hit by the batted ball. At first they killed it and called him out. Then they got together and changed the call and put him on 2B because the 2Bman was going to second to cover and nobody had a play on the ball.

I've seen my example occur in the major leagues, and the runner was not out.

The rule you are quoting obviously refers to a ground ball. If the infield is in and a runner behind the fielders is hit by a ground ball, it's nothing. The ball does not have to be within the immediate reach of infielder in that case for it to have "passed the fielders." But even if it doesn't "pass a fielder," it's only an out if a fielder in the area had a play. If a hit and run is on and the 2Bman breaks for the bag and the batted ball hits the runner from 1B going to 2B, he is not out. The 2Bman was not there to have a play on the ball. BTW, the stupidest scoring rule in baseball is giving the batter a hit when his batted ball hits a runner for an out.

Why would you have an out if the ball passed F3 and F4 had no play? Once it passed F3 it doesn't matter where F4 is if he has no play.

F4 was deep in the back of the infield. The ball did not pass him, but he had no play.

I'm the OP and I clearly said that it was a high popup. Did you even read the first post? How could a bounding ball hit the batter runner after he was on first base?

Passing the front edge of the bag does not mean anything when the ball is still in the air and has not hit the ground or a fielder yet yet. Lots of long fly balls down the line are fair in the air when they pass the base but end up way foul.

According to another "Ask the Umpire" guy, the batter-runner does not become merely a runner until all playing action is over. Is that wrong?