SavoyBG

Thanks, that clears it up. The obstruction only matters if the ball is fair and uncaught.

Interesting play today in my high school game. I was on the sacks, two outs with a runner on first, so I am in the B. Batter pops up on the first place line about halfway between home and first. The pitcher calls the ball and is sizing it up. The first baseman is also charging down the line to try and catch it. The batter-runner and first baseman collide violently. My partner on the plate delays a couple of seconds and after the ball hits the ground he calls time and calls the batter-runner out for interference. He told me later that after he saw where the ball landed he decided that the first baseman had a better chance to catch the ball than the pitcher. If this play occurs and you decide that it's the pitcher's ball, then you have obstruction on the first baseman . Now, suppose the ball is caught by the pitcher in foul territory, or the ball lands in foul territory. You can't give the batter first on a foul ball, can you? If obstruction is called it's not a dead ball and the play continues. What are the different scenarios with fair or foul, and with the batter-runner.

Me too, Bloomfield.

That's usually just during a pitching change. If it's just a conference without any changes you don't see it.

LOL

Thank you senor!

Today I had a situation in a high school game that I don't think is covered anywhere in the rule book. I know I did the right thing because this has been covered before at meetings here, but I don't think there's anything in the rule book to back it up. Defensive head coach calls time to go to the mound. As he is walking to the mound his backup catcher brings out a plate and a ball and and throws the ball to the first baseman, and sets up the plate on the ground in live ball territory in foul ground between first base and the dugout. They were gonna have the first baseman throw a few warmup pitches to this catcher while the coach was having his conference, but I stopped them before any throws were taken. The coach argued that there was no rule against it. I told him that this has been discussed before by our interpreters and it is not allowed. An inning later he told me that if his players were not stupid that they would have thrown a few pitches while he and I were arguing about whether they could do this. Is this covered anywhere in any rule book or case book, or is it just 10.3.g in Federation?

If the batter hits the ball, fair or foul, with one foot on the ground and completely out of the batter's box, the batter is out, dead ball, runners go back to where they were at the time of the pitch.

Here in NJ if he has an assistant who can run the team then he has to leave out of sight and sound. If he is alone as a coach, like maybe a Freshman game on the road, he can go somewhere away from the infield, but where he can still see the game, since he is still responsible for supervising the kids.

Here's what Scott Tittrington at Referee Mag had to say: I believe this falls under rule 8-4-2k. If a runner is contacted by a fair batted ball before it touches an infielder, or after it passes any infielder, except the pitcher, and the umpire is convinced that another fielder has a play, the runner is out. So, in layman’s terms, it depends on where the first baseman actually was. If the ball was in front of him, the runner should be out. If the ball was behind him, and another infielder had a chance to make a play on it (maybe the second baseman in this case), the runner is out. If the ball was behind the first baseman and no one else in the umpire’s view had a play, the runner is safe. Interference does not come into play as no play was being made on the ball at the moment it hit the runner. This is what our other baseball guy in the office came up with along with my input. Thanks, Scott

You mean they don't make Chicken Savoy in Wyoming?

Here's where I am at now with the original play in this thread. It seems that in Federation the call would hinge on whether or not the ball had "passed" the 1Bman before it hit the batter-runner. This is because Federation does not distinguish between the batter-runner and a runner getting hit by a batted ball. If I had judged the ball to have passed the 1Bban, AND no other fielder had a play, then the batter-runner would not be out. In the NCAA I see no way around their rule that specifically is for a better-runner being hit by a fair batted ball, and he'd have to be out. So the question becomes, exactly what does "passed the fielder" mean. Does it have to pass him going towards the outfield, or can it pass him in the air going laterally? My friend Jon Levinson is the NCAA National Women's Basketball Interpreter, and he also proofreads for Referee Magazine. He's gonna see about getting a national ruling for me at various levels.

So if the batter's helmet comes off as he starts running and the helmet contacts the ball and knocks it foul, it would be foul?

Just let it be known that Junior Soprano lives right behind my house on Watsessing Ave in Belleville.

No, I'm still open as to whether or not the no out call was correct on the popup, but since EVERY Fed interpreter here in NJ says it was, then for the purposes of that call in that game, I made what is considered the correct call here in NJ. On the play as to whether or not that run counts, only the state interpreter says no. The other 3 regional interpreters I spoke too (including my chapter guy) say it does not count. I think there's a good chance that if we got them all together that they could get the state interpreter to reverse his ruling after discussing the play. I don't see why it would not be treated the same as any other missed base.

I am against there even being moderators. People should say whatever like want, like on Usenet, unless they are committing a crime.

Oh no! You mean this is another one of those places where the moderators get all crazy over stupid SH*#?

It's amazing how many rules have a very different ruling under various rulebooks. So in Fed the ball is still live. It seems like if the bat hits the ball in fair territory and knocks the ball into foul territory that it would be a foul ball.

If you're that sensitive, Beer, umpiring is probably not for you.

So if the ball has stopped moving and is just sitting on the ground and the batter runner is already at first base and a fielder runs over and picks it up, you are saying that the fielder" had a play?"

Another play that I had last year in a high school game. Two outs, bases loaded. Base hit to the outfield, first runner scores. Second runner crosses the plate but does not touch the plate. The runner from 1B then gets thrown out at 3B to end the inning. After the out, the runner who missed the plate touches the plate on his way to the dugout. Does the run count, do they have to appeal, what? The team did not appeal, but the NJ state interpreter claims that you don't count the run because the runner did not touch the plate before the third out. I disagree. My chapter interpreter sees it my way. The run counts unless the team appeals before all the infielders have left the field. The fact that he went back and touched the plate means nothing, as he can't do that after the third out has been recorded. I think you treat it like any other missed base. The defense has to appeal, otherwise it is assumed that he touches base and the run counts. I found this approved ruling for MLB, and the run counts unless the defense appeals.

No.

If the bat was still moving when it contacted the ball the batter is out for interference, all runners return to where they were at the time of the pitch. If the bat had stopped moving and the ball rolled into the bat, it's nothing. The ball remains live.

Go have another beer. "Making a play on the ball" means that he has a reasonable chance to get an out. It does not mean that he simply can eventually get the ball after the runners are all safe.