Actual situation: R2, ball hit to 1st base where first baseman comes in to get it, throws toward 3rd where R2 was headed. 3rd baseman isn't in the base-path. Throw is high and wide, so it pulls him into the base-path and he collides with R2, (I would say the throw was right at the fielders glove, MAYBE slightly past the fielder when they collide), throw continues to go toward the short leftfield fence. Runner gets up, touches 3rd, and heads home. Left fielder, backing up the play, throws the runner out at home by a step. Since this was obstruction on a play being made on a runner, it should have been dead ball immediately, and runner placed on 3rd, correct? However, since it played out, and a dead ball was not called, and then it was clear that if the obstruction had not occurred the runner would have scored, do you handle it differently? What if the throw was clearly in front of the 3rd baseman when the obstruction occurred?
Hypothetical situation, similar idea, but R1, ball hit to first base, R1 obstructed by 2nd baseman while the first baseman overthrows the ball and it goes way out into left center field. Still kill it and keep the runner on 2nd, when they would have easily had 3rd (or possibly even scored, although I wouldn't assume that probably)? I know that obstruction on a runner that the play is being made is a dead ball, but is there leeway for situations similar to this?
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TheLovejoy
Actual situation: R2, ball hit to 1st base where first baseman comes in to get it, throws toward 3rd where R2 was headed. 3rd baseman isn't in the base-path. Throw is high and wide, so it pulls him into the base-path and he collides with R2, (I would say the throw was right at the fielders glove, MAYBE slightly past the fielder when they collide), throw continues to go toward the short leftfield fence. Runner gets up, touches 3rd, and heads home. Left fielder, backing up the play, throws the runner out at home by a step. Since this was obstruction on a play being made on a runner, it should have been dead ball immediately, and runner placed on 3rd, correct? However, since it played out, and a dead ball was not called, and then it was clear that if the obstruction had not occurred the runner would have scored, do you handle it differently? What if the throw was clearly in front of the 3rd baseman when the obstruction occurred?
Hypothetical situation, similar idea, but R1, ball hit to first base, R1 obstructed by 2nd baseman while the first baseman overthrows the ball and it goes way out into left center field. Still kill it and keep the runner on 2nd, when they would have easily had 3rd (or possibly even scored, although I wouldn't assume that probably)? I know that obstruction on a runner that the play is being made is a dead ball, but is there leeway for situations similar to this?
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The Man in Blue
This is why base coaches (like the coach in that Philly play the other night) will try to keep a fast runner moving on an obstruction play. If they go past one base, it is ultimately up to the umpire
stevis
Nope, normal OBR Type A/B (or 1/2, however you want to think about it) in Little League.
GiantEngineer
What rule set? FED, obstruction is always delayed dead ball. Then you have to determine where the runner would have gotten with no obstruction. If it's home, then he scores but if it's third then
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