Balk 2?

[Guest Mike]

Left pitcher , not sure if it matters , watches runner take of as he is in set position and pitcher made no movement. But the footwork seemed suspect. Normally we are used to with off the runner and throw, or a step to the base and throw. But this is dorky. He turns and throws but his non pivot foot or stepping foot doesn’t make it past the runner but was pointing to second.

 

balk?

[Replacematt]

 

[beerguy55]

Runner was on first base?

Then took off, and pitcher did an inside move to second?

Is that right?

[Guest Mike]

9 minutes ago, beerguy55 said:

Runner was on first base?

Then took off, and pitcher did an inside move to second?

Is that right?

No he was on 2nd.  Although if that was true, I thought you could still throw to unoccupied base if there is a play/stealing 

 

if runner is on 2nd , pitcher can step and throw to third, even if the runner faked a steal. If he’s still and not moving that’s throwing to unoccupied base no?

[noumpere]

1 hour ago, Guest Mike said:

No he was on 2nd.  Although if that was true, I thought you could still throw to unoccupied base if there is a play/stealing 

 

if runner is on 2nd , pitcher can step and throw to third, even if the runner faked a steal. If he’s still and not moving that’s throwing to unoccupied base no?

Yes, F1 can throw to third if R2 is advancing or feints an advance (the specific wording varies by code, but the practical effect is the same).  But, the move to third must be legal -- F1 must step toward third and step ahead of the throw.    And, I don't think (but I'm willing to be corrected)  LH F1 can use an "inside move" to go all the way around and step and throw to third.

[Tborze]

2 hours ago, noumpere said:

 But, the move to third must be legal -- F1 must step toward third and step ahead of the throw.    And, I don't think (but I'm willing to be corrected)  LH F1 can use an "inside move" to go all the way around and step and throw to third.

Never seen it but I don’t see why not on a jump turn. 

[noumpere]

13 minutes ago, Tborze said:

Never seen it but I don’t see why not on a jump turn. 

There is the "when the free foot passes the rubber, F1 must pitch or throw (or feint) to second" rule.

[Tborze]

15 hours ago, noumpere said:

There is the "when the free foot passes the rubber, F1 must pitch or throw (or feint) to second" rule.

I’m aware!  But on a jump turn there is no possibility of a pitch. I was always under the impression that the above applies when the non pivot foot is lifted first.