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Batters interference


BigVic69

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R3 is headed to home.

3rd baseman lobs the ball home.

 

The catcher started out on the 1st base side of home plate in an attempt to catch the ball, he realizes that the ball is trailing to his left (3rd base side) and swings around the batter to get the ball.

 

The batter was moving infield to avoid the play at home. The pitcher never left the mound area.

 

R3 reached home before the catcher failed to catch the ball.

 

Q: is the catcher having to swing around the batter interference?

 

 

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1 hour ago, BigVic69 said:

 

R3 is headed to home.

3rd baseman lobs the ball home.

 

The catcher started out on the 1st base side of home plate in an attempt to catch the ball, he realizes that the ball is trailing to his left (3rd base side) and swings around the batter to get the ball.

 

The batter was moving infield to avoid the play at home. The pitcher never left the mound area.

 

R3 reached home before the catcher failed to catch the ball.

 

Q: is the catcher having to swing around the batter interference?

 

 

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Hard to say without video.  Judgement! Did the batter hinder F2's ability to field the throw? Q=

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Why did R3 have the ball? 

The general rule is that the batter must avoid hindering the defense on a play at the plate, provided he has time. Since there's no pitch in this scenario, he should have time to get out of the way.

Accidentally going the wrong way does not alleviate the batter of his responsibility to avoid hindrance. Hindrance here would be batter INT: with 2 outs, the batter is out, and otherwise R3 is out and other runners return.

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51 minutes ago, ArchAngel72 said:

who teaches their batter to move towards the infield on a play coming into the plate?  Eesh..

 

 

I can see two reasons...one, going backwards you're more likely to collide with the catcher, because he's behind the plate, not in front of it - you may not be able to see exactly where he is, but you can both know and see where he is not...and two, going forward ensures you get out of the way of your teammate, who is likely doing a back door slide.

The more likely scenario is he just panicked and has no rhyme or reason to the direction he went.

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19 hours ago, maven said:

Why did R3 have the ball? 

I'm very confused as to where R3 had the ball.

 

19 hours ago, beerguy55 said:

I can see two reasons...one, going backwards you're more likely to collide with the catcher, because he's behind the plate, not in front of it - y

I cannot understand why F5 had the ball.  If this was a batted ball why is BR 'moving in front of home plate' and not running to first? Was he making his way into the box to start his bat after a hit to the outfield lobbed in by F5?

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9 minutes ago, aaluck said:

 

 

I cannot understand why F5 had the ball.  If this was a batted ball why is BR 'moving in front of home plate' and not running to first? Was he making his way into the box to start his bat after a hit to the outfield lobbed in by F5?

Two possibilities...R1 threw to F5, and R3 ran home....in this case we don't know which box the batter is in, or why he's doing what he's doing...OR B1 hits a very hard grounder/screaming one-bouncer to F5...as F5 comes up with it and is throwing home B1 is just starting to run, likely from the RHB box (I've hit line drives that were caught by F3 and I'm still in the box holding the bat)

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Hopefully a better scenario

After an overthrow to the 3rd baseman (in an attempt to get the runner out)
The runner is headed to home.
The 3rd baseman retrieved the ball and lobbed the ball home.
 
The catcher started out on the 1st base side of home plate in an attempt to catch the now airborne ball, he realizes that the ball is trailing to his left (3rd base side) instead and swings around the batter to get the ball.
 
The batter was moving infield to avoid the play at home. The pitcher never left the mound area.
 
The catcher failed to catch the ball after the runner had already made it to home plate.
 
Q: is the catcher having to swing around the batter interference?
 
My thought is that the batter did not interfere with the thrown ball, nor the inbound ball and since the ball was so way off the mark and the runner had already scored before the failed attempt to catch the ball by the catcher then there is no interference.

Thanks
 


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1 hour ago, BigVic69 said:

Q: is the catcher having to swing around the batter interference?
 
My thought is that the batter did not interfere with the thrown ball, nor the inbound ball and since the ball was so way off the mark and the runner had already scored before the failed attempt to catch the ball by the catcher then there is no interference.

That scenario is clearer. I meant F5 throwing to F2, not R3.

This is batter INT. The batter must vacate the area needed by the defense to make a play.

Your reasoning is partly based on extending the standard for runner INT to the batter: for runners, INT with a thrown ball must be intentional. But the batter is not a runner, and he doesn't get the protection a runner does (because the runner actually has a job out there). The batter has to vacate the area.

As for the timing element: it's certainly possible for the batter being in the path of F2 to be so late that it had no impact on the play. If that's your judgment, then it's supportable by rule (no hindrance = no INT). But I would extend all benefit of the doubt to the defense here: it doesn't take much for F2 to get to the ball, and even a small delay can make a difference. I'm probably ruling INT here unless R3 scores before or just as F5 releases the throw.

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