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Batter runner is out...


BigVic69

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I think that I know that "No run may score on an inning-ending play in which the third out is a force out or on the batter before he reaches first base. "

My situation: Drop 3rd strike, runner at 3rd makes it to home before the batter-runner is hit by a thrown ball by the catcher. The batter-runner was in fair territory.

1) I called the runner out, I said no run scored. Was i correct?

2) What would have been the call if it was not an inning ending out? Batter runner out, the run scores?

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30 minutes ago, ilyazhito said:

This would be considered interference. As such, interference penalties would apply. The runner from 3rd would have scored, as he had attained home before the batter interfered with the catcher's throw. 

No run scores on RLI unless there is an intervening play with less than 2 outs in OBR and NCAA. FED would be runner returns TOI which usually would be no run scores but in this case it would unless the RLI was the third out. 

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After parsing Jim's response for a moment, allow me to agree with him and summarize:

  1. In your situation, BR out, no run scores, inning over (same ruling all codes).
  2. Had there been less than 2 outs, in all codes, the BR is out; in FED, R3 scores; in OBR, R3 returns.

That said, I'm pretty sure the INT happened before R3 scored.

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12 hours ago, BigVic69 said:

I think that I know that "No run may score on an inning-ending play in which the third out is a force out or on the batter before he reaches first base. "

My situation: Drop 3rd strike, runner at 3rd makes it to home before the batter-runner is hit by a thrown ball by the catcher. The batter-runner was in fair territory.

1) I called the runner out, I said no run scored. Was i correct?

2) What would have been the call if it was not an inning ending out? Batter runner out, the run scores?

1) You highlighted the wrong part.  I fixed it for you.

 

2) Agree with Jim and Maven.

image.png.1acb8ff71ec07956a503e7a1f45d2b4b.png

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18 minutes ago, Aging_Arbiter said:

............and I'm pretty sure that Maven mentioned this for a reason...........:cool:

Well sure!

Because we're in the "Ask the Umpire" forum, I'll go ahead and save someone the trouble.

Any benefit of any tiny shred of doubt needs to go to the defense here. A great way to ruin a game (from a game management perspective—likely to lead to trouble later) is to allow runs on a play where the defense feels "cheated." If the offense "cheats" (commits INT), runners should return.

FED has a different rule to "keep it simple": runners return to their TOI base, period (almost—FPSR is an exception). But most participants in the game are going to be surprised (and half of them angry) if we send R3 to the dugout instead of 3B. It's not the "expected call," and we always need to be 100% correct when we go against the expected call (and prepared to justify it, preferably with 25 words or fewer).

So: I'm pretty sure the INT happened first.

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