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Guest Anthony

Fielder Obstruction according to Tim He-who-shall-not-be-named

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Guest Anthony

Dear All,

I would like to ask you a question. Can you please watch this video (1991 NLCS Game 5)?

(39:05)

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Qzj2SoQi_GM&t=8s

At the end of the play, He-who-shall-not-be-named says:

Brian Hunter tries to grab Don Slaught. And by grabbing Slaught, it would have been interference and Hunter would have scored.

Is it true? First of all, He-who-shall-not-be-named ignores the difference between INTERFERENCE and OBSTRUCTION. But if Hunter had grabbed Slaught, would have the umpire called the obstruction? I was a baseball umpire many years ago. So, it is possible that I have forgotten many of the rules. But, this explanation by He-who-shall-not-be-named doesn't seem right.

What do you think? Thanks.

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Hunter was trying to draw an obstruction call.  This was too obvious to have worked even if he had grabbed F2.

 

The general statement would be "a runner can't cause his own obstruction."

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16 hours ago, Guest Anthony said:

Dear All,

I would like to ask you a question. Can you please watch this video (1991 NLCS Game 5)?

(39:05)

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Qzj2SoQi_GM&t=8s

At the end of the play, He-who-shall-not-be-named says:

Brian Hunter tries to grab Don Slaught. And by grabbing Slaught, it would have been interference and Hunter would have scored.

Is it true? First of all, He-who-shall-not-be-named ignores the difference between INTERFERENCE and OBSTRUCTION. But if Hunter had grabbed Slaught, would have the umpire called the obstruction? I was a baseball umpire many years ago. So, it is possible that I have forgotten many of the rules. But, this explanation by He-who-shall-not-be-named doesn't seem right.

What do you think? Thanks.

I wouldn't have called the obstruction there. F2 peeled off before the runner reversed directions and wasn't impeding his ability to get to the plate.

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