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Force Play
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Question
Guest Kyle Rondeau
In MLB, how can there possibly be a “call stands” ruling on a force play unless there is a clear obstruction of the camera angle? The rule, contrary to what most—if not all—umpires will say, gives benefit to the runner in case of a tie... “...The defense can retire the runner by tagging the next base before he arrives...” As such if it is not absolutely clear that the defense beat the batter-runner to the base, (considering the availability of stop motion or freeze-frame instant replay) then the batter-runner must be declared safe. Yes, Tie goes to the runner. The rulebook says so in that if there is an instance of a tie, then the defense cannot be ruled to have tagged the base before the runner arrived. One “pop” is a tie. Runner is safe.
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ricka56
Oh, and before instant replay (which can't distinguish events like an oscilloscope can), real bangers were decided by who screwed up the least. If the infielders made a sparkling play, the runner was
LMSANS
By Rulebook definition there are no ties...they are either safe or out. There is no third option.
LMSANS
I’m trying to find the “tie” in the rule book. It’s not there! A runner is either safe or out. If there were ties, then the call would be “yer tied, do it over”.
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