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kstrunk

To call it...or not...

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Watching an NCAA game yesterday (as a spectator), 2 man crew, R1, R2, no outs. 

Ground ball to F6, throws to F4 for the force at 2B, to F3 for a banger. 1BC screams 'he's off the bag!!!'. No call from BU who seemed to be in the appropriate position to make a call. Rather, BU looked at PU who was a step into foul territory about 20 ft up 1BL. Nothing from either brother for several seconds until BU finally calls him safe with no other signal, DC is out immediately. 

My question is this - I realize there was at one time a mechanic wherein the BU would instantly defer to PU on the line when F3's foot may have been pulled... but I thought those days were over and BU should make his call and then check with his partner if necessary, and I think the PU thought so as well. Am I wrong on that, or is this simply a mistake (which no one is above)? Is it something that guys pre-game? 

I for one will be pre-gaming it from now on because it obviously needs to be pre-gamed! Or am I overboard on this? 

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Our state wants a call made by U1, then go to PU for help after if need be. I pregame this every game. I have found a basic split 50/50 with guys who would rather have U1 call it right away, or go to PU for a call before making one. I'm in the U1 makes a call camp. Deferring to your partner when it's your call is just bad optics, and who's to say your partner got a great definitive look? 

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Just pre-gamed this particular situation with a partner last week.  Verdict - BU make the call and then go to PU.  By not making the call, the runner is jeopardy of wandering off and being tagged out or being called out for abandonment when he does not know what his status is.

{Edited to remove bungled question}

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1 minute ago, conbo61 said:

R3 two outs.  Grounder to the infield, play at 1B.  Runner is called safe but makes turn to advance, changes his mind and is tagged out. In the interim, runner scores.  The run would count as this would now be considered a time play.  However, the defensive team appeals that F3's foot was off the bag.  After the crew gets together, it is determined that it was a pulled foot situation and the run is removed.

Correct interpretation?

I don't think that's a correct interpretation.  In either case, BR was not out until after he reached first -- making it a time play.

 

But, I am wondering why the defensive team would argue that F3's foot was off the base.

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Why would it matter if the foot was off the bag or not if the initial call was safe to begin with? Appealing (correctly) that the foot was off the bag wouldn't change the call, right? If he was deemed to have beaten the throw to begin with but an (defensive??) appeal determines he pulled his foot, the call is still the same? I'm having a hard time understanding this situation.

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1 minute ago, noumpere said:

I don't think that's a correct interpretation.  In either case, BR was not out until after he reached first -- making it a time play.

 

But, I am wondering why the defensive team would argue that F3's foot was off the base.

I bungled it.  I hit post when I was reading another email.  My apologies.

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